Qlik Sense System Administrator Certification The Qlik Sense System Administrator Certification Exam measures your ability
to identify requirements for environments, install and set up Qlik Sense
Enterprise, manage environments, and monitor and troubleshoot. This exam has 50
multiple-choice questions to answer in 2 hours.
Prerequisites At least 6 months experience as an administrator of a Microsoft Windows
Server-based environment
Experience working with Qlik Sense sites and the Qlik Management Console, to
provide data and application governance, library maintenance, as well as user
and application security
Experience managing the policies and options that run the Qlik Sense servers and
apps
Experience creating rules and managing the visualization streams
Knowledge of networking and Active Directory configuration, proxies,
intermediate web servers, load balancers, etc.
Familiarity with Windows tools and logs created (e.g., Event Viewer, Services
Console, DCOM Console, Windows Registry)
Experience using NSLookUp, Telnet, Ping, NetStat, Fiddler, and other browser
tools to troubleshoot connectivity, interoperability, configuration,
performance, etc.
Recommended Preparation Resources Instructor-Led Training: Deploy and Administer Qlik Sense
Qlik Continuous Classroom: System Administrator
Qlik Sense Certification Exam Study Guide
FREE Qlik Sense System Administrator Certification Practice Questions
Exam Topics
Plan Installation (20% of the exam) Given a scenario, recommend environment architecture
Given a scenario, determine appropriate security strategies
Install System (22% of the exam) Configure initial environment for Qlik Sense access
Configure multi-node deployment
Configure proxy and virtual proxies
Manage Content (34% of the exam) Configure tasks based on business and system needs
Apply procedural concepts to organize external content (Content Library and
Extensions)
Apply steps to manage streams and apps
Apply steps to manage privileges in the Qlik Sense deployment
Configure user roles and properties
Monitor and Maintain (24% of the exam)
Investigate Qlik Sense errors and issues
Given a scenario, demonstrate an understanding of how to monitor system
performance
Apply the steps to perform a backup and restore
Apply the steps to perform upgrade(s)
QUESTION 1 A company decides to move servers from on premise to a cloud. A system
administrator performs a backup,
restore, and brings the server online. When users open the app on the hub, they
get an error message indicating the app could not be found.
The system administrator confirms that apps are present in the required location
and NO changes have been made.
What could be causing the issue?
A. Shared persistence path is NOT reachable
B. Synchronized persistence is in place
C. The app has been moved from one stream to another
D. The security rules were broken when the servers were migrated
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 A single-node Qlik Sense environment has all services up and running. Users
report apps and sheets are slow to open.
A system administrator works remotely and does NOT have access to the shared
file system for the
environment. The system administrator’s computer can make requests to the Qlik
Sense Repository Service.
Due to the system performance issues, a system administrator can NOT run any new
reloads. The system
administrator receives a warning email about high RAM usage on the server.
Which step should the system administrator take to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Request the “http://<server.domain.com>/engine/performancecheck/” API
B. Access the server remotely and inspect the logs in %ProgramData%\Qlik\Sense\Log\Engine
C. Request the “https://<server.domain.com>/engine/healthcheck/” API
D. Request the “https://<server.domain.com>/qmc/audit” API
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 A system administrator creates a custom property called “dept” and assigns
it to users and apps. The value of
the custom property are department names such as Accounting, Finance, and IT.
Users with the same value
for “dept” can see and edit each other’s apps. Users with different values for
the property should NOT see each other’s apps.
Which security rule should the administrator use to meet this requirement?
A. Resource: App_*, Stream_*
Conditions: user.@dept=app.@dept
B. Resource: App_*
Conditions: user.@dept=resource.id
C. Resource: App_*
Conditions: user.@dept=resource.@dept
D. Resource: App_*
Conditions: user.@dept=resource.description
Exam ID HPE6-A71
Exam type Proctored
Exam duration 1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length 60 questions
Passing score 65%
Delivery languages Japanese, English, Latin American Spanish
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:
Implementing Aruba Mobility, Rev. 19.21
Additional study materials
Exam description This exam tests your skills with the WLAN design, deployment, and
troubleshooting of Aruba Mobile First Network Solutions in complex highly
available campus and branch environments. It also tests your ability to
configure specialized applications, management, and security requirements for a
WLAN such as UCC Voice and advanced security features.
Ideal candidate for this exam
Typical candidates for this exam are networking IT professionals with a minimum
of two years of advanced-level implementation experience with Aruba WLAN
solutions and a minimum of three years of experience with wired LAN
infrastructure and switching and routing technologies.
Exam contents
This exam has 60 questions.
Advice to help you take this exam
Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you
take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides,
practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an
expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events,
supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure
you will pass the exam.
Objectives This exam validates that you can:
Percentage of Exam Sections/Objectives
20% Integrate and implement Aruba Mobile First architecture components and
explain their uses. Integrate components of the Aruba Mobile First Architecture.
Differentiate between standalone mode and Master Controller Mode (MCM) features
and recommend use cases.
Differentiate the use of packet forwarding modes (tunnel, decrypt-tunnel,
split-tunnel, and bridge).
Differentiate between redundancy methods, and describe the benefits of L2 and L3
clustering.
Explain Remote Access architectures and how to integrate the architectures.
Describe and differentiate advanced licensing features.
20% Configure and validate Aruba WLAN secure employee and guest solutions. • Configure Remote Access with Aruba Solutions such as RAP and VIA.
• Configure and deploy redundant controller solutions based upon a given design.
• Configure a Mesh WLAN.
38% Implement advanced services and security. • Enable multicast DNS features to support discovery across VLAN boundaries.
• Configure role derivation, and explain and implement advanced role features.
• Configure an AAA server profile for a user or administrative access.
• Implement Mobility Infrastructure hardening features.
• Explain Clarity features and functions.
• Implement Voice WLAN based upon a given design.
• Configure primary zones and data zones to support MultiZone AP.
• Implement mobility (roaming) in an Aruba wireless environment.
• Implement tunneled node to secure ArubaOS switches.
10% Manage and monitor Aruba solutions. • Use AirWave to monitor an Aruba Mobility Master and Mobility Controller.
• Perform maintenance upgrades and operational maintenance.
12% Troubleshoot Aruba WLAN solutions. • Troubleshoot controller communication.
• Troubleshoot the WLAN.
• Troubleshoot Remote Access.
• Troubleshoot issues related to services and security.
• Troubleshoot role-based access, per-port based security and Airmatch.
QUESTION 1 An administrator deploys an AP at a branch office. The branch office has a
private WAN circuit that provides
connectivity to a corporate office controller. An Ethernet port on the AP is
connected to a network storage
device that contains sensitive information. The administrator is concerned about
sending this traffic in cleartext across the private WAN circuit.
What can the administrator do to prevent this problem?
A. Enable IPSec encryption on the AP's wired ports.
B. Convert the campus AP into a RAP.
C. Redirect the wired port traffic to an AP-to-controller GRE tunnel.
D. Enable AP encryption for wired ports.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 An administrator needs to modify a VAP used for a branch office RAP. The
VAP's operating mode is currently
defined as backup and uses tunnel mode forwarding. The administrator wants to
implement split-tunnel forwarding mode in the VAP.
Which WLAN operating mode must the administrator define for the VAP before the
tunnel forwarding mode can be changed to split-tunnel?
A. Trusted
B. Always
C. Persistent
D. Standard
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 An administrator creates service-based policies for AirGroup on the Mobility
Master (MM). The administrator can define location-based policy limits based on
which information?
A. controller names, controller groups, and controller Fully Qualified Domain
Names (FQDNs)
B. AP names, AP groups, controller names, and controller groups
C. AP Fully Qualified Location Names (FQLNs) and controller Fully Qualified
Domain Names (FQDNs)
D. AP names, AP groups, and AP Fully Qualified Location Names (FQLNs)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 An administrator supports a RAP at a branch office. A user's device that is
attached to the Ethernet port is assigned an 802.1X AAA policy and is configured
for tunneled node.
How is the user's traffic transmitted to the corporate office?
A. It is not encapsulated by GRE and not protected with IPSec.
B. It is encapsulated by GRE and protected with IPSec.
C. It is not encapsulated by GRE but is protected with IPSec.
D. It is encapsulated by GRE and not protected with IPSec.
Description MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect - Level 1A MuleSoft Certified Platform
Architect should be able to define and be responsible for an organization’s
Anypoint Platform strategy. The MCPA – Level 1 exam validates that an architect
has the required knowledge and skills to direct the emergence of an effective
application network out of individual integration solutions following API-led
connectivity across an organization using Anypoint Platform. S/he should be able
to:
Optimize and shape the Anypoint Platform deployment in the specific
organizational context, working with business, infrastructure, InfoSec, and
other teams.
Define how Anypoint Platform is used in conjunction with other tools and
applications in the organization.
Define the usage of Anypoint Platform and the corresponding organizational and
process changes needed to help the Platform be sustainable.
Provide guidance and drive creation of standards, reusable assets, and
automation required for scale and multi-LOB adoption.
A downloadable data sheet for the exam can be found here. Format Format: Multiple-choice, closed book, proctored online or in a
testing center
Length: 58 questions
Duration: 120 minutes (2 hours)
Pass score: 70%
Language: English
The exam can be taken a maximum of 5 times, with a 24 hour wait between each
attempt.
Cost $375 The exam can be purchased with one of the following. Each includes a
coupon for one free retake.
1.5 Flexible Training Credits (FTC) A voucher obtained by attending the instructor-led Anypoint Platform
Architecture: Application Networks course
Additional retakes (attempts 3 to 5) are $250 or 1 FTC and do not come with a
free retake.
Validity
The certification expires two years from the date of passing.
Preparation
The best preparation for the exam is to take the instructor-led Anypoint
Platform Architecture: Application Networks course. Candidates should be
familiar with all of the content in the course and be able to apply the
concepts.
The following resources are available to assist in a candidate’s preparation:
Instructor-led training: Anypoint Platform Architecture: Application Networks
Recommended as the most effective and efficient method of preparation 3-day
class
Private and public classes available
Onsite and online classes available
Includes a certification voucher for this exam
Practice quiz 20+ multiple-choice questions
Comparable difficulty to the proctored exam
Topics The exam validates that the candidate can perform the following tasks.
Explaining Application Network Basics Explain MuleSoft’s proposal for closing the IT delivery gap
Describe the role and characteristics of the "modern API"
Define and describe the benefits of API-led connectivity and application
networks
Define outcome-based delivery (OBD)
Correctly use the terms API, API implementation, API client, API consumer, and
API invocation
Describe the capabilities and high-level components of Anypoint Platform
ARC:NET Module 1
ARC:NET Module 2
Establishing Organizational and Platform Foundations Describe the purpose and roles of a C4E
Identify KPIs to measure the success of a C4E
Given specific organizational requirements, preferences, and constraints,
identify all suitable Anypoint Platform deployment options
Select Anypoint Platform identity management vs client management for the
correct purpose
ARC:NET Module 2
ARC:NET Module 3
Designing APIs and API Interactions Break down functional requirements into business-aligned APIs with effective
granularity
Given a set of APIs and specific preferences and organizational characteristics,
recommend the use of an Enterprise Data Model or Bounded Context Data Models
Identify changes to an API that would require or not require a major version
increment
When asynchronous execution of API invocations is needed, select when to
appropriately use polling or callbacks
Identify idempotent HTTP methods and HTTP-native support for optimistic
concurrency
Describe the creation and publication of reusable API-related assets using RAML
and Anypoint Platform components
ARC:NET Module 4
ARC:NET Module 6
Bounded Context
Why You Should Avoid a CDM
Canonical Data Models & Microservices
HTTP/1.1: Semantics and Content
HTTP/1.1: Caching
Semantic Versioning 2.0.0
Semantic versioning of REST APIs?
Following API-Led Connectivity
Identify appropriate APIs to implement a business process and assign them to
layers of API-led connectivity
Assign APIs to layers according to ownership, functional focus, and rate of
change
Given specific requirements and organizational characteristics, recommend the
most appropriate approach relating the API data model of System APIs to that of
their backend system
Governing APIs on Anypoint Platform Given specific preferences and constraints, select API policy enforcement
with or without API proxies
Select appropriate API policies to enforce non-functional constraints on API
invocations
Given an API policy with specific characteristics, identify any change required
in the corresponding RAML definition
Given a layer of API-led connectivity, identify API policies that are typically
applied to that layer and the scenarios needing custom policies
Identify which types of APIs and other remote interfaces are or are not amenable
to management by API Manager
ARC:NET Module 5
Controlling Access to APIs
Describe when and how to pass client ID and secret to an API Describe when and
how to pass client ID and secret to an API Describe when and how to pass client
ID and secret to an API
Explain how to register an API client for access to an API version
ARC:NET Module 5
Delivering APIs Describe the automation capabilities of Anypoint Platform for DevOps, CI/CD,
and testing
Compare unit and integration tests and specify where MUnit is best employed
Explain how to use autodiscovery to link an API implementation to an API
instance managed with API Manager
Specify how and when to promote APIs with API Manager
Identify when redeployment of API implementations is necessary
Deploying Mule Applications to CloudHub
Describe the fundamentals of deployments, networking, and routing on CloudHub
Select CloudHub worker sizes and configuration as appropriate
Describe the scenarios for which Object Store should be used with CloudHub
ARC:NET Module 7
Architecting Performant and Resilient APIs Identify the factors involved in scaling API performance
Identify the differences between the CloudHub Shared and Dedicated Load
Balancers
Identify single points of failure in typical CloudHub usage
Select strategies that help API clients guard against failures in API
invocations
ARC:NET Module 7
ARC:NET Module 9
HYSTRIX Defend Your App
Let’s talk about Resilience
Eclipse MicroProfile Fault Tolerance
Monitoring and Analyzing Application Networks Identify the components of Anypoint Platform that generate data for
monitoring and alerting
Describe the metrics collected by Anypoint Platform on the level of API
invocations
Describe and select between the options for performing API analytics within and
outside of Anypoint Platform
Specify alerts to define for key metrics of API invocations for all layers of
API-led connectivity
Specify alerts to define for API implementations
ARC:NET Module 10
Delivery methods
The exam is administered via the Kryterion Webassessor testing platform. The
exam can be taken in-person at a testing center or online using a web camera.
In-person at a Kryterion Testing Center:
Over 1000 locations worldwide
Onsite instructions
Test-taker guide
Online using the Kryterion Webassessor testing platform:
Requires a webcam - a laptop webcam can be used, an external camera is not
required
Requires internet connectivity with 1 Mbps upload, 1 Mbps download, jitter
<50ms, ping <200ms
Check your internet speed and reliability
Note: Some candidates are expelled from the exam for an unstable connection even
after checking reliability with the tool. If you think your connection could
potentially be unreliable, we strongly recommend scheduling your exam at a test
center.
Online instructions
Test-taker guide
Registration To register for the exam:
Go to Webassessor.
Create a user profile.
Log in.
Select Register for an Exam.
Select the MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect – Level 1 exam.
Select either the Online Proctoring Option or the Kryterion Test Center option.
On the payment screen, select to pay by credit card or enter a voucher/coupon
code.
Note: A fee applies if an exam is cancelled or rescheduled within 72 hours of
its scheduled time, even if the exam was purchased with a voucher. QUESTION 1
What API policy would LEAST likely be applied to a Process API?
A. Custom circuit breaker
B. Client ID enforcement
C. Rate limiting
D. JSON threat protection
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 What is a key performance indicator (KPI) that measures the success of a
typical C4E that is immediately apparent in responses from the Anypoint Platform
APIs?
A. The number of production outage incidents reported in the last 24 hours
B. The number of API implementations that have a publicly accessible HTTP
endpoint and are being managed by Anypoint Platform
C. The fraction of API implementations deployed manually relative to those
deployed using a CI/CD tool
D. The number of API specifications in RAML or OAS format published to Anypoint
Exchange
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 An organization is implementing a Quote of the Day API that caches today's
quote.
What scenario can use the CloudHub Object Store via the Object Store connector
to persist the cache's state?
A. When there are three CloudHub deployments of the API implementation to three
separate CloudHub regions that must share the cache state.
B. When there are two CloudHub deployments of the API implementation by two
Anypoint Platform business groups to the same CloudHub region that must share
the cache state.
C. When there is one deployment of the API implementation to CloudHub and
another deployment to a customer-hosted Mule runtime that must share the cache
state.
D. When there is one CloudHub deployment of the API implementation to three
CloudHub workers that must share the cache state.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 What condition requires using a CloudHub Dedicated Load Balancer?
A. When cross-region load balancing is required between separate deployments of
the same Mule application
B. When custom DNS names are required for API implementations deployed to
customer-hosted Mule runtimes
C. When API invocations across multiple CloudHub workers must be load balanced
D. When server-side load-balanced TLS mutual authentication is required between
API implementations and API clients
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 What do the API invocation metrics provided by Anypoint Platform provide?
A. ROI metrics from APIs that can be directly shared with business users
B. Measurements of the effectiveness of the application network based on the
level of reuse
C. Data on past API invocations to help identify anomalies and usage patterns
across various APIs
D. Proactive identification of likely future policy violations that exceed a
given threat threshold
Avaya Aura® Call Center Elite manages the collection, queuing, assignment and
delivery of voice work items to appropriately skilled agents in the contact
center. Intelligent routing and resource selection features, determines if
customers should be served by the least busy agent, the first available agent,
or the agent with skills that best match their needs. Call Center Elite uses the
phantom call capabilities of Avaya Aura® Communication Manager to deliver work
items to the contact center agents which supports inbound and outbound contacts.
The ACIS - Avaya Aura® Call Center Elite credential validates the candidate has
achieved an enhanced level of proficiency required to integrate and implement
core and complex products of the Avaya Aura® Call Center Elite.
To earn the ACIS - Avaya Aura®: Call Center Elite, the candidate must pass
7392X, Avaya Aura® Call Center Elite Exam
The recommended training for the credential requirements is in the learning map
below.
QUESTION 1 Which three items are needed to properly configure a hunt group in an Expert
Agent Selection (EAS) enabled call center? (Choose three.)
A. the Class of Restriction (COR)
B. the group extension
C. the trunk group number
D. the call distribution method
E. the Vector Directory Number (VDN)
Correct Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION 2 When creating a vector directory number, or VDN, which four options must be
configured to ensure that the call center works correctly? (Choose four.)
A. Hunt Group
B. Vector
C. Extension
D. Skill Level
E. Agent Login
F. Measured Format
Correct Answer: A,B,D,E
QUESTION 3 To ensure that announcements always start at the beginning when played as
part of a vector, which action must be taken?
A. Use Analog announcements only
B. Set the queue field to Yes
C. Use external announcements
D. Create forced announcements
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 A customer wants the ability to track the call types for Automatic Call
Distribution (ACD) calls answered by agents. These call types will be defined by
the customer.
Which call center feature can the customer use to track their defined call
types?
A. Redirection on No Answer (RONA)
B. Call Work Codes (CWC)
C. Least Occupied Agent (LOA)
D. Feature Access Codes (FAC)
E. Multiple Call Handling (MCH)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 A supervisor with console permission can enter an agent’s login ID, and add
or remove an agent’s skill via
Feature Access Code (FAC). Agents can also dial FAC to add or remove a skill.
Which statement is true about the configuration of this feature?
A. The supervisors class of services (COS) must have the field “Add/Remove Agent
Skills” set to y.
B. The agent’s COS must have the field “Add/Remove Agent Skills” set to y.
C. The supervisor’s class of restriction (COR) must have the field “Can Force a
Work State Change” set to y.
D. The supervisors COS must have the field “Can Force a Work State Change” set
to y.
E. The supervisors COR must have the field “Add/Remove Agent Skills” set to y.
About the Salesforce Platform App Builder Credential The Salesforce Platform App Builder credential is designed for individuals
who would like to demonstrate their skills and knowledge in designing, building,
and deploying custom applications using the declarative customization
capabilities of the Lightning Platform. The candidate can create, manage, and
update data models, application security, business logic, and process
automation.
Here are some examples of the concepts you should understand to pass the exam:
How to design the data model, user interface, business logic, and security for
custom applications
The Salesforce Platform App Builder credential is intended for an individual who
has experience developing custom applications on the Lightning Platform,
including practical application of the skills and concepts noted in the exam
objectives below.
The Salesforce Platform App Builder generally has 6 months to 1 year of
experience building applications on the Lightning Platform and/or on a similar
technology platform.
The Salesforce Platform App Builder candidate has the experience, skills, and
knowledge outlined below:
Familiarity with the capabilities of the Lightning Platform
Awareness of Salesforce license types and related considerations
Ability to design applications to support business processes and reporting
requirements
Familiarity with the social and mobile capabilities of the platform; accustomed
to using and optimizing business applications on a mobile device
Familiarity with the Salesforce development environments and the options
available to deploy applications and manage changes on the Lightning Platform
Study of the resources listed in this exam guide and the additional required
study materials provided by Salesforce
A candidate for this exam is not expected to be able to administer Sales Cloud
or Service Cloud, have programmatic development experience (Apex, Visualforce,
etc.), design custom interfaces using Visualforce, or design custom Lightning
components using Apex or JavaScript.
Purpose of this Exam Guide
This exam guide is designed to help you evaluate if you are ready to
successfully complete the Salesforce Platform App Builder exam. This guide
provides information about the target audience for the certification exam,
recommended training and documentation, and a complete list of exam
objectives—all with the intent of helping you achieve a passing score.
Salesforce highly recommends a combination of on-the-job experience, course
attendance, and self-study to maximize your chances of passing the exam.
About the Exam
Read on for details about the Salesforce Platform App Builder exam.
Registration fee: USD 200, plus applicable taxes as required per local law
Retake fee: USD 100, plus applicable taxes as required per local law
Delivery options: Proctored exam delivered onsite at a testing center or in an
online proctored environment. Click here for information on scheduling an exam.
References: No hard-copy or online materials may be referenced during the exam.
As preparation for this exam, we recommend a combination of hands-on experience,
training course completion, Trailhead trails, and self-study in the areas listed
in the Exam Outline section of this exam guide.
The self-study materials recommended for this exam include:
Trailmix: Prepare for Your Salesforce Platform App Builder Credential
Superbadge: Security Specialist
Superbadge: Process Automation Specialist
Superbadge: App Customization Specialist
To enroll in instructor-led courses and launch online training from your
Salesforce application, click the Help & Training link in the upper right corner
of the screen (requires login) and search for the desired courses. Non-Salesforce
customers can register for instructor-led courses here.
Instructor-Led Training recommended for this exam:
Declarative Development for Platform App Builders in Lightning Experience (DEX
403)
Certification Preparation for Platform App Builder (CRT 402)
To review online Documentation, Tip Sheets, and User Guides, search for the
topics listed in the Exam Outline section of this guide and study the
information related to those topics. Documentation, Tip Sheets, and User Guides
can also be accessed through Help & Training.
Exam Outline
The Salesforce Platform App Builder exam measures a candidate’s knowledge and
skills related to the following objectives. A candidate should have hands-on
experience developing custom applications on the Lightning Platform and have
demonstrated the application of each of the features/functions below.
Salesforce Fundamentals: 8%
Describe the capabilities of the core CRM objects in the Salesforce schema.
Given a scenario, identify the boundaries of declarative customization and the
use cases for programmatic customization.
Identify common scenarios for extending an org using the AppExchange.
Data Modeling and Management: 20% Given a scenario, determine the appropriate data model.
Describe the capabilities of the various relationship types and the implications
of each on record access, user interface, and reporting.
Identify the considerations when changing a field's type.
Given a set of requirements, identify the considerations and select the
appropriate field type.
Describe the capabilities and considerations of the schema builder.
Describe the options and considerations when importing and exporting data.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for external objects.
Security: 10%
Describe the features and capabilities available to restrict and extend object,
record, and field access.
Given a set of business requirements, determine the appropriate sharing
solution.
Business Logic and Process Automation: 27% Describe the capabilities of and use cases for record types.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for formula fields.
Describe the capabilities of, use cases for, and implications of roll-up summary
fields.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for validation rules.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for approval processes.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for workflow, Flow, and Process
Builder.
Given a set of business requirements, recommend a solution to automate business
processes.
Describe the ramifications of field updates and the potential for recursion.
Social: 3% Describe the capabilities of and use cases for social features.
User Interface: 14% Describe the user interface customization options.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for custom buttons, links, and
actions.
Describe the declarative options available for incorporating Lightning
Components in an application.
Given a scenario, determine the appropriate user interface design.
Reporting: 5% Describe the features and capabilities available when creating reports,
report types, and dashboards.
Mobile: 5% Describe the declarative customization options available for the Salesforce
mobile application user interface.
Given a set of requirements, determine the appropriate global and
object-specific actions and action layouts to optimize the Salesforce mobile
application user experience.
App Development: 8%
Describe the key milestones and considerations when managing the application
lifecycle.
Describe the differences between and considerations when using the various types
of sandboxes.
Describe the capabilities of and considerations when using change sets.
Describe the use cases of and considerations when using unmanaged packages.
Given a scenario, determine the appropriate deployment plan.
Maintaining Your Salesforce Certification One of the benefits of holding a Salesforce credential is always being
up-to-date on new product releases (updates). As such, you will be required to
complete the Platform App Builder certification maintenance modules on Trailhead
three times a year.
Don’t let your hard-earned credential expire! If you do not complete all
maintenance requirements by the due date, your credential will expire.
Bookmark these useful resources for maintaining your credentials:
Overall Maintenance Requirements
Maintenance Exam Due Dates
Verify Your Certification Status
Certification Expiration Details
QUESTION 1 Universal Containers manages internal projects by department using a custom
object called Projects. Only
employees in the project’s respective department should have view access to all
of the department’s project
records. If an employee changes job roles and moves to another department, the
employee should no longer
have access to the projects within their former department.
Which two options will meet these requirements assuming the organization-wide
default for Projects is set to Private? (Choose two.)
A. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project’s department that
grants access to users by profiles.
B. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project’s department that
grants access to users by permission sets.
C. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project’s department that
grants access to users by roles.
D. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project’s department that
grants access to users by public groups.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 2 Universal Containers has a customer base where many customers have the same
or similar company names.
Which functionality should be configured to improve an end user’s search
experience? (Choose two.)
A. Update the account search layouts search filter fields.
B. Update the account search layouts accounts tab columns displayed.
C. Update the account search layouts search results columns displayed.
D. Update the account search layouts list view filter settings.
Correct Answer: B,C
QUESTION 3 An app builder creates an Account validation rule on the Industry field that
will throw an error if the length of
the field is longer than 6 characters. Another app builder creates a workflow
with a field update that sets the
Industry field to Technology whenever the Billing City field is set to San
Francisco.
What will happen the next time a sales person saves an Account with a Billing
City of San Francisco?
A. The record will save and the Industry field will change to Technology.
B. The record will not save and no error message will be displayed.
C. The record will not save the validation rule’s error message will be
displayed.
D. The record will save but the Industry field will not change to Territory.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 What is a true statement when deleting a dashboard?
A. Deleting a dashboard also deletes the components within it. It does not
delete the custom reports used by the components.
B. Deleting a dashboard does not move the dashboard to the Recycle Bin and
therefore the dashboard cannot be recovered.
C. Deleting a dashboard also deletes the components within it as well as the
custom reports used by the components.
D. Deleting a dashboard requires a user to first edit the components to remove
the underlying reports.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 A junction object has two Master-Detail relationships, a primary and a
secondary master object.
What happens to a junction object record when both associated master records are
deleted?
A. The junction object record is permanently deleted and can’t be restored.
B. The delete operation cannot be performed on both master records.
C. The delete operation is not allowed with Roll-up summary fields defined.
D. The junction object records is deleted and placed in the recycle bin.
Exam Name: Nokia Scalable IP Networks
Exam Number: 4A0-100
Credit Towards Certifications: Nokia Network Routing Specialist I
Mandatory Exam Prerequisites: N/A
Exam Duration: 75 Minutes
Exam Appointment Duration: 120 minutes. This is the exam duration plus a 45
minute tutorial on computer-based examinations.
Number of Questions: 60
Language: English
For a list of candidate exam topics, please refer to the list of course
objectives and modules in the course outline. The course overview page and
course outline can be found here.
Exam exemptions are available for individuals with IP certifications from other
organizations. Refer to the following link for additional details: Credit for
Other IP Certifications.
Exams are delivered by our external test delivery partner, Pearson VUE. For more
information, access their website at www.pearsonvue.com/nokia.
QUESTION 1 You are configuring your Alcatel-Lucent 7750SR Service Router from the
Command Line Interface (CLI), and after entering a lengthy command, wish to
return directly to the ROOT context. Which control command allows you to do this
quickly?
A. Ctrl-z
B. Ctrl-c
C. Esc
D. Shift-Page Down
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Which of the following best describes a repeater?
A. A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate
or amplify any signals.
B. A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its ports, but does not
do any Layer 2 analysis of the data.
C. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address,
makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
D. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address,
makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 How do protocols such as ATM and Frame-Relay support differentiating
multiple customers or traffic types on the same physical wire?
A. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use Virtual Circuits
to create logical separation of traffic.
B. ATM and Frame-Relay are point-to-point protocols and do not support different
customers or traffic type on the same physical wire.
C. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use VLAN's to create
logical separation of traffic.
D. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use IP Header
information to create logical separation of traffic.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Which of the following is a feature of Layer 3?
A. Provides an universal addressing scheme
B. Ensures data is delivered across the Layer 2 network.
C. Provides reliable data transfers.
D. Provides a physical interface to the network.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 The 201.148.26.0/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets
and host addresses will you obtain with this mask?
A. 4 subnets, 64 hosts
B. 64 subnets, 4 hosts
C. 4 subnets, 62 hosts
D. 64 subnets, 2 hosts
E. 6 subnets, 30 hosts
