C5050-062 Rational UrbanCode Deploy

Test information:
Number of questions: 70
Time allowed in minutes: 75
Required passing score: 70%
Languages: English, Japanese, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Deployment Professional - Rational UrbanCode Deploy

Section 1: How UrbanCode Deploy fits within IBM DevOps
Recognize and describe the IBM approach to DevOps
Identify and describe the capabilities that UrbanCode Deploy delivers to IBM DevOps
Identify and describe the concepts and challenges of continuous software delivery in a DevOps context

Section 2: Implementing Security in UrbanCode Deploy
Use UC Deploy to configure group and team roles
Use UC Deploy to configure External security realms including LDAP, Active Directory and SSO.
Identify the features of the security model used by UC Deploy

Section 3: Programming and Plugins
Determine the various types of plugins for UC Deploy
Use automation and source configuration plugins in UC Deploy
Update and delete plugins in UC Deploy

Section 4: UrbanCode Deploy Architecture
Identify the concepts of Resources, Resource Groups, Agents, Agent Relays Agent Pools
Recognize the concepts of Applications, Components, Snapshots, Versions and Artifacts
Recognize the elements of the Basic Usage Model of UrbanCode Deploy and the flow of operations including configuration of the deployment environment, development, deploy to the pipeline and chaining of environment deployments

Section 5: UrbanCode Deploy Integrations
Identify UC Deploy integration capabilities with other products
Identify UC Deploy and Cloud integration capabilities

Section 6: Using UrbanCode Deploy
Determine the requirements for product installation
Use UC Deploy to create and configure Applications and related Environments, Processes, Approvals, +Notifications and Properties
Use UC Deploy to create and configure Components and related artifacts, properties and versions
Use UC Deploy to create snapshots
Use UC Deploy to create and configure Resources and related Agents, Subresources, Resource Roles and +Resource Templates
Identify and describe the concepts of Inventory, Compliancy and Model-driven Deployments

IBM Certified Deployment Professional - Rational UrbanCode Deploy

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This certification targets intermediate level Deployment Professionals. This Deployment Professional can plan, install, configure and troubleshoot a new implementation of the UrbanCode Deploy product. The Deployment Professional can also upgrade, update, configure and troubleshoot existing installations of UrbanCode Deploy.

The Deployment Professional should have an intermediate level of knowledge of UrbanCode Deploy and a firm understanding of how UrbanCode Deploy can be implemented in a small and simple environment as well as a large and complex environment. The Deployment Professional can train, tutor and mentor IBM customers in the installation, configuration and ongoing use of UrbanCode Deploy. The Deployment Professional can perform most of these tasks independently and may require some assistance from peers and vendor support services.

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).
QUESTION: No: 1
A security type is a product area that can have permissions defined for it. Each security type has a set of
permissions that affect how users interact with it. How many security types are available in IBM
Urban Code Deploy?

A. 13
B. 10
C. 3
D. 5

Answer: D

Explanation:
A security type is a product area that has permissions defined for it. There are several security types predefined. They are system, application, release, deployment, status, and initiatives and changes.
Other than the Status security type, permissions are predefined.

References:
http://vvww.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS4GCC_6.2.1/com.ibm.ureIease.doc/topics/security_types.htmI

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QUESTION: No: 2
In orderto set up an integration with WebSphere, you first perform a WebSphere Topology Discovery.
WebSphere is not installed in a default location and so you must notify IBNI UCD concerning the location
of the wsadmin executable. What is the name of the property thatyou must set, and where do you set it?

A. You must set the wsadmin.Iocation property on the correct resource.
B. You must set the wsadmin.path property on the correct agent.
C. You must set the wsadmin.executabIe on the correct resource.
D. You must set the wsadmin.Iocation on the correct agent.

Answer: B

Explanation:
If WebSphere Application Server is deployed in a directory otherthan the default directory, you must set a property on the agent before you can run the WebSphere Topology Discovery step.

1. Go to Resources > Agents > <agent-name> > Configuration > Agent Properties.
2. Add a property named wsadmin.path.
3. Set wsadmin.path to the fully qualified path tothe wsadmin script (including the script name).

References:
http://vvww.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS4GSP_6.0.1/com.ibm.udepIoy.pIugins.doc/topics/pIu gins_websphereportaI_config_depIoy.htmI

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VCS-323 Administration of Veritas Backup Exec 16

Although each product varies in complexity and depth of technical knowledge, all certification exams, targeting customers in an administrative role, cover core elements measuring technical knowledge against factors such as installation, configuration, deployment, product administration, management, day-to-day maintenance, and basic troubleshooting.

The certified administrator demonstrates an understanding of the installation, configuration, and administration of Backup Exec 16. The VCS Backup Exec 16 administrator with this knowledge will be better prepared to proactively manage the Backup Exec operations in the environment in which it is installed.

Passing this exam will result in a Veritas Certified Specialist (VCS) certification and counts towards the requirements for a Veritas Certified Professional (VCP) certification in Data Protection.

Exam Details
# of Questions: 80 - 90
Exam Duration: 105 minutes
Passing Score: 69%
Languages: English
Exam Price: $225 USD (or your country’s currency equivalent)

Suggested Preparation

Backup Exec 16 Administration
Note: If you do not have prior experience with this product, it is recommended that you complete an in-person, classroom training or Virtual Academy virtual classroom training class in preparation for the VCS exam. Be cautioned that attendance in a training course does not guarantee passage of a certification exam.

Recommended preparation steps:
Exam Preparation Guide (PDF): Download and review the guide to understand the scope of topics covered in the certification exam and how they map to the key lessons and topics in the associated training course(s).
Attend recommended training classes listed above.

Gain hands-on experience with the product. 3-6 months experience working with Backup Exec in a production or lab environment is recommended.
Sample Exam (PDF): Test yourself and your exam-taking skills using the sample exam

In addition, you should be familiar with the following product documentation and web sites:
Veritas Backup Exec 16 Licensing Guide
Veritas Backup Exec 16 Readme First Release Notes
Veritas Backup Exec 16 Administrator's Guide
Veritas Backup Exec 16 Software Compatibility List
Veritas Backup Exec 16 Hardware Compatibility List
Backup Exec Product Documentation
Backup Exec Product Page
Backup Exec Technical Support
Backup Exec Updates, Patches and News
Veritas Communities

Recommended hands-on experience (real world or virtual):
Recommended 3-6 months experience working with Backup Exec in a production or lab environment.
Have knowledge of the various Backup Exec 16 licensing editions.
Describe the basic components, devices, terms, and concepts of Backup Exec.
Install Backup Exec 16 and add additional agents and options on the Backup Exec server after the installation.
Describe the features of Backup Exec 16.
Describe the various backup methods available in Backup Exec.
Configure preferences and global settings.
Configure storage devices.
Create jobs to backup, restore, convert, and duplicate.
Install and configure Agents for Windows.
Add and manage protected server resources.
Install Backup Exec updates and apply updates to Windows and Linux agents.
Run inventory and catalog and other utility jobs.
Identify agents and options used with Backup Exec in their environment.
Describe enhanced backup job functionality (e.g., GRT, Instant GRT, Disk Staging, Duplication of backup sets, data encryption, snapshot, and virtual environments).
Perform basic troubleshooting (e.g., restart services, interpret job logs, check Event Viewer, check Configuration Tasks Widget, run Backup Exec troubleshooting tools, etc.).
Import, export, and back up the Database Encryption Key.

QUESTION 1
Which option should an administrator select to add a tape with a barcode to the library?
A. Initialize now
B. Scan
C. Inventory and Catalog now
D. Inventory

Answer: B

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QUESTION 2
Which options must be installed to share a Robotic Library containing one tape drive between an NDMP server and multiple Backup Exec servers?
A. the NDMP Option and the Library Expansion Option (LEO)
B. the Enterprise Server Option (CSO) and the Virtual Tape Library Unlimited Drive Option (VUDO)
C. the NDMP Option and the Enterprise Server Option (ESO)
D. the NDMP Option and the Virtual Tape Library Unlimited Drive Option (VUDO)

Answer: B

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QUESTION 3
Which two conditions cause Data Discovery to fail to detect remote servers in the same domain as the Backup Exec server? (Select two.)
A. The administrator failed to add the default logon account to the local administrators group on the remote servers
B. The servers have Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) disabled
C. The firewall on the remote servers is configured to block WMI traffic
D. The firewall on the remote servers is configured to block port 10000
E. The remote servers have an old version of the Symantec Backup Exec Remote Agent installed

Answer: B,C

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QUESTION 4
What are two requirements for configuring Optimized Duplication between two or more Backup Exec servers? (Select two.)
A. The Central Admin Server (CAS) and Managed Backup Exec Server (MBES) must be configured.
B. The NDMP option must be installed.
C. The OS must be similar on the Backup Exec servers where the Deduplication Folder needs to be shared.
D. The same Deduplication account must be used on all the Backup Exec servers.
E. The Deduplication storage on each Backup Exec server must be shared.

Answer: A,E

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QUESTION 5
Within which section of Backup Exec Settings should the administrator define the Database Encryption Key export path?
A. Preferences
B. Network and Security
C. Database Maintenance and Security
D. Storage

Answer: D

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C2150-612 IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.6 Associate Analyst

Test information:
Number of questions: 54
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 66%
Languages: English, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Associate Analyst - Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.6

The test consists of 5 sections containing a total of approximately 54 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Section 1 - General Networking and QRadar SIEM concepts (17%)
Compare different protocols, traffic types, and port numbers.
Describe and illustrate log source types.
Compare the different event log transport methods.
Discuss security device concepts (firewall, IDS/IPS, Proxy, Authentication devices, and antivirus software).
Explain how environment information can be used to enrich event and flow data intelligently.
Explain data normalization and categorization.
Enumerate the common characteristics of a SIEM.

Section 2 - QRadar basics (26%)
Explain the different types of correlations (CRE and ADE).
Illustrate the function of a DSM.
Explain how Log sources, flow sources, vulnerability scanners, and reference data are used in Qradar.
Compare flows to events.
Explain QRadar network hierarchy and how it aids in "seeing the whole picture" .
Describe additional QRadar add-on components (QVM, QRM, QRIF).
Distinguish offenses from triggered rules.
Distinguish search results from reports.
Distinguish rules from building blocks.
Compare rule responses and rule actions.
Explain the core system functionality of �Host Definition� building blocks.
Summarize QRadar Components; Console, Event Processor, Event Collector, Flow Processor, Data Nodes and Flow Collector.

Section 3 - QRadar login and navigation (13%)
Explain how to login to and navigate the GUI console.
Describe the types of information available on the DASHBOARD tab.
Describe the types of information available on the OFFENSES tab.
Describe the types of information available on the LOG ACTIVITY and NETWORK ACTIVITY tabs.
Describe the types of information available on the ASSETS tab.
Describe the types of information available on the REPORT tab.
Demonstrate the appropriate procedure to navigate to, from and within an offense.

Section 4 - QRadar functions and capabilities (18%)
Explain the different ways to assign offenses and add notation.
Summarize offense search functionalities.
Illustrate examples of dashboard customizations.
Distinguish right click functionality (plugins, information, navigate, other).
Demonstrate the use of right-click event filtering.
Explain how to explore the content of an event, review the normalized fields and the payload.
Show the Offense lifecycle.
Compare Event/Flow/Common/Offense/Anomaly/Behavioral/ Threshold Rules.
Demonstrate how to export Flow/Event data for external analysis.

Section 5 - QRadar data interpretation (26%)
Explain Offense details on offense details view.
Explain why payloads (raw data) may need to be reviewed.
Distinguish offenses from triggered rules.
Examine the differences between an offense magnitude and an event magnitude.
Describe how to run Reports and the formats in which they can be output.
Outline Offense Closing Procedures.
Discuss the Asset Database and how assets are profiled.
Outline simple Offense naming mechanisms (Removed: not testable).
Explain differences between various event/flow timestamps.
Understand the capabilities of different sources of flows.
Give examples of how QRadar can show different security concerns (i.e., Advanced Persistent Threat (APT), Brute Force, DDoS, etc.)
Describe coalescing.
Compare Standard Custom Properties, User-defined Custom Properties and Normalized properties.
Compare the different types of searches that can be performed (AQL, Quick Searches, and Searches via the Edit Search GUI panel).
Explain the information provided by flows.
Describe a use where flows provide more information than events.

IBM Certified Associate Analyst - Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.6

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This entry level certification is intended for security analysts who wish to validate their comprehensive knowledge of IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.6.

These security analysts will understand basic networking, SIEM, and QRadar concepts, including how to login to, navigate within, explain capabilities of, and access, interpret, and report data in a QRadar deployment.

To attain the IBM Certified Associate Analyst - Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.6 certification, candidates must pass 1 test. To prepare for the test, it is recommended to refer to the job role description and recommended prerequisite skills, and click the link to the test below to refer to the test objectives and the test preparation tab.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

Basic knowledge of:
SIEM concepts
TCP/IP networking and protocols
network security concepts
internet security attack types
compliance and audit requirements
incident management and response

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).

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QUESTION: No: 1
Where can a user add a note to an offense in the user interface?

A. Dashboard and Offenses Tab
B. Offenses Tab and Offense Detail Window
C. Offenses Detail Window, Dashboard, and Ad min Tab
D. Dashboard, Offenses Tab, and Offense Detail Window

Answer: B

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QUESTION: No: 2
When might a Security Analyst want to review the payload of an event?

A. When immediately after login, the dashboard notifies the analyst of payloads that must be investigated
B. When "Review payload" is added to the offense description automatically by the "System: Notification" rule
C. When the event is associated with an active offense, the payload may contain information that is not normalized or extracted fields
D. When the event is associated with an active offense with a magnitude greater than 5, the payload should be reviewed, otherwise it is not necessary

Answer: C

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QUESTION: No: 3
Which key elements does the Report Wizard use to help create a report?

A. Layout, Container, Content
B. Container, Orientation, Layout
C. Report Classification, Time, Date
D. Pagination Option, Orientation, Date

Answer: A

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QUESTION: No: 4
How is an event magnitude calculated?

A. As the sum of the three properties Severity, Credibility and Relevance of the Event
B. As the sum of the three properties Severity, Credibility and Importance of the Event
C. As a weighted mean of the three properties Severity, Credibility and Relevance of the Event
D. As a weighted mean of the three properties Severity, Credibility and Importance of the Event

Answer: C

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QUESTION: No: 5
What is a benefit of using a span port, mirror port, or network tap as flow sources for QRadar?

A. These sources are marked with a current timestamp.
B. These sources show the ASN number of the remote system .
C. These sources show the username that generated the flow.
D. These sources include payload for layer 7 application analysis.

Answer: D

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Exam 70-735 OEM Manufacturing and Deployment for Windows 10

Published: June 19, 2017
Languages: English
Audiences: IT Professionals
Technology: Windows 10
Credit toward certification: MCP

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.

If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact your Regional Service Center.

Prepare the Imaging Environment (20-25%)
Install deployment tools and scripts
Prepare the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK), prepare the required tools from the Windows ADK installation
Add customizations to the image
Use tools to design an answer file that will add branding to the device, add OEM information such as support URL or phone support number, provide the default product key for OEM Activation implementation, set the default user languages, add the custom logo and wallpaper
Create a Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE)
Use the Windows ADK scripts to create the Windows PE source files, add optional packages, add default languages, add custom scripts, create a bootable USB or ISO file of the Windows PE, add device drivers

Service the Offline Image (40-45%)
Add drivers to the image
Choose the recommended installation paths for adding drivers, add INF-based drivers offline, add INF-based drivers from a folder path using deployment tools
Add language packs to the image
Distinguish the difference between a language pack and a language interface pack; determine when to use Feature on Demand language packs, how to apply the ordering of Feature on Demand language packs when adding new languages to the image, and which language packs should be applied to the Recovery image; set the default time zone in the image; set the default input and system locales in the image
Add update packages to the image
Choose which updates to apply, select which updates to apply to Windows image and Recovery image
Service in-box applications
Reapply in-box applications, select the appropriate dependency packages for each application bundle, troubleshoot installation failures, pin apps to Start layout and taskbar
Optimize the image
Mark updates in a Recovery image as permanent, export a Recovery image, set scratch space size, check the overall size of a Recovery image for partition layout schemes
Deploy the image
Select the disk partition layout, run DISM to apply the image, set up the recovery environment, boot into Audit mode for online servicing

Service the Online Image (35-40%)
Preinstall Office 2016
Prepare office files for preinstallation, create configuration files, add multiple languages, set up the first user experience
Create restore packages
Use ScanState to create restore packages of installed desktop applications, registry settings, and application settings
Prepare the recovery environment
Create extensibility scripts, create configuration files, create migration files, copy backup files to the recovery folder for Push Button Reset
Reseal the image
Use Sysprep to reseal the image to OOBE, boot to Windows PE for final capture, optimize the image for disk footprint, mark update packages as permanent, optimize the image for deployment, use deployment tools to capture the final image for mass deployment
Deploy and validate the image
Test the final image deployment, verify that settings are correct, the image passes system validation tests, and Push Button Reset restores the image to its correct state
QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You are building a new image of Windows 10 that contains a push-button reset solution.
You need to test whether push-button reset works as expected.
Solution: From Windows 10. you press and hold the SHIFT key, and then you restart the computer. After the computer restarts, you click Troubleshoot, and then you click Reset this PC.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

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QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question Is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 has the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) installed.
You are building a new image of Windows 10.
You copy the installation media for Windows 10 to Computer1.
You need to add drivers to the Windows 10 image.

A. Mount the Install.wim file.
B. Mount the Boot.wim file.
C. Modify the Winpeshl.ini file.
D. Create an answer file.
E. Modify the Windows.ini file.
F. Create a provisioning package.
G. Load a catalog file (.clg).
H. Create a cabinet file (.cab).

Answer: B

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QUESTION 3
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
To provide the default product key for OEM activation, you create an answer file by using Windows System Image Manager (Windows SIM), and you add the Microsoft-Windows-Shell-Setup component and the ProductKey component to the generalize pass.
Review the underlined text. It it makes the statement correct, select "No change is needed." If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed
B. auditSystem pass
C. specialize pass
D. windowsPE pass

Answer: C

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QUESTION 4
You deploy an image of Windows 10.
From audit mode, you install several applications for a customer, and then you run sysprep.exe /oobe /quit.
You need to identify whether any errors occurred when you ran sysprep.exe.
Which folder contains the log files?

A. %WINDIR%\Logs
B. %WlNDIR%\System32\LogFiles
C. %WINDIR%\Panther\
D. %WINDIR%\System32\Sysprep\Panther

Answer: D

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C5050-300 Foundations of IBM DevOps V1

Test information:
Number of questions: 61
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 70%
Languages: English, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Solution Advisor - DevOps V1

Section 1 - DevOps Principles
Define DevOps
Summarize different development approaches
Explain and identify delivery pipelines
Explain lean principles
Explain DevOps practices
Describe Collaborative Development
Describe Continuous Integration
Describe Continuous Delivery
Describe Continuous Deployment
Describe Continuous Availability / Service Management / Monitoring
Describe Continuous Security / Security for DevOps
Explain Shift-Left Test /Continuous Test
Explain Shift Left Ops
Explain Multi-speed IT
Explain Continuous Feedback
Explain the implications of the �12 Factor app� design principles for DevOps
ITIL and DevOps

Section 2 - Adopting DevOps
Describe business and IT drivers of DevOps
Explain the barriers to adoption of DevOps
Explain how to build a roadmap for DevOps adoption
Explain how to adopt DevOps in Multi-speed IT environment
Explain other continuous improvement approaches
Illustrate the cultural & organizational differences when transforming from traditional to DevOps processes
Explain the benefits of Design Thinking for DevOps process adoption

Section 3 - IBM DevOps Reference Architecture & Methods
Describe IBM DevOps Reference Architecture pattern
Explain the IBM point of view on DevOps
Explain DevOps for Microservices
Explain DevOps for Cloud Native
Explain DevOps for Cloud Ready
Explain Cloud Service Management Operations
Describe the IBM Bluemix Garage Method
Define and identify the common components of a DevOps Tool chain
Describe the key architectural decisions made to adopt DevOps
Describe the concepts of Software Defined Environments

Section 4 - Open Standards, Open Source & Other Common Components of DevOps
Identify tools for Build & Deploy
Identify other common tools and their uses
Describe common container technology
Explain the applicability of open standards for DevOps

Section 5 - IBM Solution for DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the THINK phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the CODE phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the DELIVER phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the RUN phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the MANAGE phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the LEARN phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the CULTURE phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for Security in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for transformation and connectivity in DevOps
IBM Certified Solution Advisor - DevOps V1

Job Role Description / Target Audience
An IBM Certified Solution Advisor - DevOps V1 is a person who can clearly explain the benefits and underlying concepts of DevOps, and has practical experience of implementing DevOps processes and solutions for clients. They can advise stakeholders on how to adopt DevOps, how to overcome barriers, and how to realize the business benefits of DevOps. They can also demonstrate how the leading industry, Open and IBM solution offerings can help customers realize these benefits.

Key areas of competency include:
Clearly articulate the benefits of DevOps for driving business agility and continuous innovation.
Advise stakeholders on how to remove barriers to the adoption of DevOps, and implement organizational change and continual process improvement.
Have a deep working experience of Continuous delivery (integration, delivery, collaboration, innovation) practices.
Experience of application development lifecycle, operational methods, SCM, version control and common tooling for cloud-ready and cloud-native application development.
Working knowledge of development, test automation and virtualization, deployment, and operational best practices.
Understand the IBM DevOps reference architecture patterns, and can apply them to DevOps solutions.
Recommend the best approach, tooling and consumption models (on premises / public / SaaS) across the IBM solution portfolio (and leading open toolchain components).

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

The following qualifications are requirements for success:
Advanced knowledge of DevOps principles, practices, and development approaches
Advanced experience of Continuous delivery (integration, delivery, collaboration, innovation) practices.
Working knowledge of the IBM DevOps Reference Architecture and associated adoption patterns.
Working knowledge of tooling and consumption models (on-premises / public / SaaS) from the IBM DevOps portfolio.
Working knowledge of the IBM DevOps solution offerings.

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).

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QUESTION 1
Which type of tests are designed to verify that security features such as authentication and logout work as expected?

A. build verification
B. network vulnerability
C. functional security
D. synthetic user

Answer: B

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QUESTION 2
When long lived source control management (SCM) branches are merged, significant amounts of network can be required to resolve code conflicts. Which DevOps practice addresses this problem?

A. continuous integration
B. test-driven development
C. A/B testing
D. continuous deployment

Answer: B

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QUESTION 3
What are two key metrics for cloud native applications? (Choose two.)

A. performance
B. stability
C. mean time between failures (MTBF)
D. first failure data capture (FFDC)
E. speed of change

Answer: A,E

Explanation: References:

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QUESTION 4
Which volume of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) should be an integral part of every stage of the ITIL service management framework?

A. ITILService Design
B. ITIL Service Operations
C. ITIL Continual Service Improvement
D. ITIL Service Strategy

Answer: C

Explanation: References:

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QUESTION 5
How does adopting DevOps help improve insight into the real value of applications?

A. by using mean time between failure (MTBF) metrics
B. by using customer feedback
C. by using usage statistics for cloud native applications
D. by using analytical analysis for return on investment (ROI) calculations

Answer: A

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C2150-205 IBM Security Directory Integrator Implementation V7.2

Test information:
Number of questions: 60
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 55%
Languages: English, French, Latin American Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil)

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Deployment Professional - Security Directory Integrator V7.2

Security Directory Integrator Concepts (23%)
Identify SDI components, data models, and tools used to provide solutions and integrations.
Identify the common Java objects that can be leveraged to build SDI solutions.
Identify various files that make up a SDI solution.
Identify how to use the System Store, Password Store, User Property Store, third-party RDBMS, and different modes of Derby to provide a SDI solution.
Identify the components and features for Delta Handling and Delta Detection in SDI.
Given a scenario, outline how to use Delta Handling components and features to create an AL that performs one-way synchronization.
Given a scenario, explain the different Connector modes and how they effect the flow of data through an SDI AL.
Given a scenario, identify where JavaScript can be used to manipulate data and the logic of the assembly line.
Given a scenario, explain the concepts, components, and capabilities of SDI password synchronization.
Given a scenario, describe how Assembly Lines can be monitored and controlled, i.e., Dashboard, +Administration and Monitoring Console (AMC), Action Manager (AM), etc.
Given a scenario, describe the AL lifecycle and the various operation modes when starting an AL.Given a scenario, describe the Initial Work Entry (IWE) and the Task Call Block (TCB).
Describe appropriate uses of Connectors in ALs.
Given a scenario to build a solution aligned with loosely coupled, service-oriented architecture and Interoperability standards, describe Server Mode and how it is used.

Planning and Architecture (13%)
Given a scenario, identify information you should know about a customer's IT environment so that you can design a compatible SDI solution.
Identify ways to implement change management.
Given a scenario about a running production environment and completed solution, export the solution, modify appropriate configuration files, stage the files and monitor the start of the solution, so that the solution has been moved into a production environment.
Given a scenario, explain different uses and ramifications of sharing a central data store between multiple ALs.
Given a scenario, explain how to plan for availability and performance, as well as exception/error reporting and auditing, in a robust and scalable SDI solution.

Installation and Configuration (12%)
Given a scenario, identify information you should know about a customer's IT environment so that you can design a compatible SDI solution.
Identify ways to implement change management.
Given a scenario about a running production environment and completed solution, export the solution, modify appropriate configuration files, stage the files and monitor the start of the solution, so that the solution has been moved into a production environment.
Given a scenario, explain different uses and ramifications of sharing a central data store between multiple ALs.
Given a scenario, explain how to plan for availability and performance, as well as exception/error reporting and auditing, in a robust and scalable SDI solution.

Assembly Line Development (30%)

Problem Determination (12%)
Given a scenario, use log analysis and exception stack traces to locate and identify key messages to isolate a problem source and interpret the root case of the exception.
Identify SDI debugger features.
Given a scenario, explain how an administrator addresses memory issues in the SDI server.
Given a scenario, explain how a Connector's connection issue can be handled by the SDI Server.

Federated Directory Server (10%)
Given a scenario, demonstrate use of the FDS console
Identify approaches to troubleshoot FDS
Identify key concepts, components, and architecture of Federated Directory Server.
Identify key concepts, components, and architecture of�a flow.
Identify key concepts, components, and architecture of endpoints

IBM Certified Deployment Professional - Security Directory Integrator V7.2

Job Role Description / Target Audience
An IBM Certified Deployment Professional for IBM Security Directory Server is an individual who has demonstrated the ability to design, implement, test, and support an IBM Security Directory Server solution. It is expected that this person is able to perform the tasks independently a majority of the time with limited assistance from peers, product documentation, and vendor support services and in some situations, take leadership and provide mentoring to peers.

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).

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C2090-913 Informix 4GL Development

Test information:
Number of questions: 90
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 78%
Languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Solutions Expert -- Informix 4GL Developer

If you are a knowledgeable Informix 4GL Developer and are capable of performing the intermediate to advanced skills required to design and develop Informix database applications, you may benefit from this certification role.

Section 1 - Informix 4GL (18%)

Section 2 - Statements (28%)

Section 3 - Cursors and Memory (13%)

Section 4 - Creating a Help File: The mkmessage Utility (1%)

Section 5 - Creating a Report Driver (3%)

Section 6 - Defining Program Variables (3%)

Section 7 - Displaying Forms and Windows (4%)

Section 8 - Forms that use Arrays (4%)

Section 9 - Passing Values between Functions (6%)

Section 10 - procedural Logic (1%)

Section 11 - The REPORT Functions (3%)

Section 12 - The SQLCA Record (6%)

IBM Certified Solutions Expert -- Informix 4GL Developer

Job Role Description / Target Audience
If you are a knowledgeable Informix 4GL Developer and are capable of performing the intermediate to advanced skills required to design and develop Informix database applications, you may benefit from this certification role.

To attain the IBM Certified Solutions Expert - Informix 4GL Developer certification, candidates must pass 1 test.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Significant experience as an Informix 4GL Developer.

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QUESTION 1
Which parts of the DISPLAY ARRAY statement are always required?

A. ON KEY keywords
B. screen array name
C. program array name
D. END DISPLAY keywords
E. DISPLAY ARRAY keywords
F. BEFORE DISPLAY keywords

Answer: B,C,E

Explanation:

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QUESTION 2
What can the arr_count() library function be used to determine?

A. the current position in the screen array
B. the current position in the program array
C. the number of elements in the screen array
D. the number of elements in the program array

Answer: D

Explanation:

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QUESTION 3
Which features are unique to the INPUT ARRAY statement?

A. BEFORE/AFTER ROW clause
B. BEFORE/AFTER INPUT clause
C. BEFORE/AFTER FIELD clause
D. BEFORE/AFTER DELETE clause
E. BEFORE/AFTER INSERT clause

Answer: A,D,E

Explanation:

Explanation:

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