Certification Provider: ASIS
Exam: ASIS - Certified Protection Professional
Duration: 2 Hours
Number of questions in the database: 767
Exam Version: Feb. 20, 2020
Exam Topics:
Topic 1: Single Topic Becoming a Certified Protection Professional (CPP)
Why Apply for the CPP?
The Certified Protection Professional (CPPⓇ) is considered the “gold standard”
certification for security management professionals and demonstrates your
knowledge and competency in seven key domains of security. Globally recognized
as the standard of excellence for security management professionals.
What's on the Exam?
The CPP exam consists of 200 scored multiple-choice questions and may contain 25
randomly distributed pre-test (unscored) questions for a total of up to 225
questions. The four hours allowed takes into consideration the review of
pre-test items.
The exam covers tasks, knowledge, and skills in seven broad domains that have
been identified by CPPs as the major areas involved in security management.
Eligibility
Nine (9) years of security experience*, at least three (3) years of which shall
have been in responsible charge* of a security function
OR
Earned a bachelor’s degree or higher from an accredited institution of higher
education and have seven (7) years of security experience*, at least three (3)
years of which shall have been in responsible charge* of a security function.
AND
Be employed full-time in a security-related role
Not have been convicted of any criminal offense that would reflect negatively on
the security profession, ASIS, or the certification program
Sign and agree to abide by the ASIS Certification Code of Conduct
Agree to abide by the policies of the ASIS Certification programs as outlined in
the Certification Handbook.
*Definitions for these terms can be found in the Certification Handbook.
Reference Material We encourage candidates to refer to the below reference materials as you
prepare for the CPP certification exam. Our item writers and reviewers use these
same materials to reference the correct answers on our exams. Remember: the ASIS
exams are experienced-based; therefore, you will need to apply your own
experience to help you answer the questions correctly. Please don’t attempt to
memorize these reference sets.
Protection of Assets (POA) POA is a comprehensive reference covering a range of technical and
managerial subjects providing the solutions necessary to meet the security
demands of the 21st century.
ASIS Standards & Guidelines ASIS Standards set forth industry-recommended best practices on specific
concerns inherent to the security industry and provide tools and processes for
implementation. Along with POA, these seven standards and guidelines make up the
CPP reference set. Standards: CSO, ORM.1, WVPI.1; Guidelines: FPSM, GSRA, IAP,
PBS.
Free download for ASIS members Standards & Guidelines CPP softcover bundle
CPP Practice Exam The CPP practice exam contains items that once appeared on the actual
certification exams but are now retired. Use the practice exam to familiarize
yourself with how exam items will appear on the current exam(s).
Get ready to prepare like you’ve never prepared before
As we often say at ExamTopics, work smarter not harder. You are about to see a
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Your journey to pass the ASIS-CPP
Perhaps this is your first step toward the certification, or perhaps you are
coming back for another round. We hope that you feel this exam challenges you,
teaches you, and prepares you to pass the ASIS-CPP. If this is your first study
guide, take a moment to relax. This could be the first step to a new high-paying
job and an AMAZING career. If you’ve been around the block a few times, consider
taking a moment and answering some questions from newer techies. After all, it’s
our great community that illuminates the material and helps build something
great.
What should you know before studying the ASIS-CPP?
Every exam and certification has different requirements. If this is a serious
venture, make sure to read the prerequisites before preceding. Nothing is worse
than wasting months studying for an exam you can’t take or passing an exam that
won’t help you get a certification! Our easy search tools are designed to help
you find relevant information as well and search for a variety of different
exams.
What is the ASIS-CPP focused on?
The ASIS-CPP or as it’s also known, the ASIS - Certified Protection
Professional, like all tests, there is a bit of freedom on ASIS's part to exam
an array of subjects. That means knowing the majority of ASIS-CPP content is
required because they test randomly on the many subjects available. Be aware too
that experience requirements often exist because they’ve observed the average
person and what is required. You can always push past that to succeed with the
ASIS-CPP but it may take some extra work.
Remember that incredible things take time. And just like ancient monuments took
years of effort, certification is not easy. It is not always quick either. But
it is worth it! Our toolset allows you to engage with an incredible community of
expert tech workers and add to the conversation at ExamTopics. If you have
questions, don’t forget to leave a comment and reach out. It’s here that you’ll
get personalized help unheard of on test prep sites, without the outrageous
fees.
Always check the foundation
Some certifications have requirements going back to older exams, while others
use two or more tests to help someone pass. If you find the ASIS-CPP is over
your head, that’s ok. It might make sense to see if a lower level exam will give
you some clarity.
If offered, read the exam objectives
The exam objectives are different for every single exam and usually provided by
the certification provider. These normally tell the test taker what subjects are
relevant, what they need to know, and why the exam seeks to cover these topics.
It’s important to find them out for your specific exam. This can be found on
nearly every vendor website and greatly informs the way you’ll study! Don’t
worry though, we have taken those objectives into account and seek to create a
testing experience comparable to an actual exam.
Remember that certification is quite rewarding
It can be hard to keep your focus on studying but remember that the best jobs in
the world are only a few tests away. Whether you enter Cyber Security or do
entry level tech work, certification is a clear, learnable, and rewarding path
to careers that pay a LOT of money. They offer better work-life balance and
you’ll get in with some of the major leaders in the business world. So don’t
give up, it is worth it, and all this work will pay off!
Using ExamTopics
Practicing for an exam like the ASIS-CPP can be a full-time job. In fact some
exams are actually paid for by work because they are so intensive. Certification
is not simple and takes immense work. It takes time, practice, and the right
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ASIS-CPP. If you get stuck, reach out. If you see others stuck, help them. And
as always, like we love to say, work smarter NOT harder!
Question: 1 Of all reported bomb threats, it is estimated that the percentage of real
threats is:
A. 2 percent
B. 10 percent
C. 15 percent
D. 20 percent
E. 22 percent
Answer: A
Question: 2 A full evacuation of a building should be ordered upon receipt of a bomb
threat when:
A. There is a reasonable suspicion that a bomb is present.
B. Any threat is received.
C. The threat is received during working hours.
D. The caller has a foreign accent.
E. None of the above.
Answer: A
Question: 3 Which of the following may be an indication of a planted bomb?
A. Loose electrical fittings
B. Tin foil
C. Fresh plaster or cement
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D
Question: 4 If a kidnapper warns the family of the victim not to notify police, the best
course of action is to:
A. Do nothing
B. Contact a reliable detective agency.
C. Notify the police anyway.
D. Notify the telephone company.
E. None of the above.
Answer: C
Question: 5 The ZYX Corporation is in the process of relocating its facilities after
several years of planning. The
president, who is well aware of the necessity for emergency planning, directs
you as the security
manager to draw up necessary plans to cope with natural disasters. Which of the
following is not a
valid assumption to be considered?
A. Some plants or facilities just are not vulnerable to natural disasters and
therefore should not be involved in the planning.
B. Most disasters considered likely will arrive with very little warning.
C. Each plant and facility must be evaluated in terms of disaster, most likely
to occur as well as the facility's capacity to cope with and minimize the
effects of the disaster.
D. In assessing the vulnerability of individual plants and other facilities,
environmental, indigenous, and economic factors must be considered.
E. Most disasters considered likely will have a rapid development and have a
potential for substantial destruction.
Answer: A
Question: 6 A natural hazard that poses a threat to many areas of this country is a
hurricane. As soon as the
weather forecaster determines a particular section of the coast will feel the
full effects of a
hurricane, he issues a hurricane warning. Such a warning specifies which of the
following?
A. Coastal areas where the eye of the storm will pass
B. Coastal areas where winds of 74 mph or higher are expected
C. Coastal areas where inhabitants should listen closely for further advisories
and be ready to take precautionary actions
D. The fact that there are definite indications a hurricane is forming and a
name to the storm is given
E. Coastal areas where winds are 100 mph or higher are expected
Answer: B
Question: 7
One natural disaster that seems to occur with increasing frequency is the
tornado. It is necessary for
the security manager to be knowledgeable regarding all aspects of tornados so
that adequate
disaster plans can be formulated. Which of the following statements is
incorrect?
A. Tornados are violent local storms with whirling winds of tremendous speed
that can reach 200-400 mph.
B. The individual tornado appears as a rotating, funnel-shaped cloud that
extends toward the ground from the base of a thundercloud.
C. The tornado spins like a top, may sound like the roaring of an airplane or
locomotive, and varies from gray to black in color.
D. Tornados only occur in the middle plains, southeastern states, and some
Middle Atlantic States.
E. The width of a tornado path ranges generally from 200 yards to one mile.
Answer: D
Question: 8 You are the security manager of the ZYW Corporation located in Phoenix,
Arizona. A report is
received from the national weather service that a tornado warning has been
issued. Which of the
following would be the correct action to take?
A. Institute appropriate emergency notification procedures as this means that a
tornado has actually been sighted in the area or is indicated by radar.
B. Alert top management as this indicates tornados are expected to develop.
C. Request the weather service to keep you advised on a 15minute basis.
D. Have all windows in the facility closed and be alert to additional weather
reports.
E. Do nothing because tornados are usually not spotted in Arizona and the report
is probably in error.
Answer: A
Question: 9 As the security manager of a large corporation located in Southern
California, you are charged with
formulating a disaster plan to handle emergencies that arise as a result of
earthquakes. Which of the
following warnings to be issued to employees should not be included in the plan?
A. If employees are outside, proceed to the nearest building and head for the
basement promptly.
B. If employees are indoors at the time of shaking, they should stay there.
C. If inside, take cover under sturdy furniture.
D. If inside, stay near the center of the building.
E. If inside, stay away from glass windows and doors.
Answer: A
Question: 10 Earthquakes constitute a definite concern to the emergency management
responsibilities of security
managers in certain areas of our country. Accordingly, it is incumbent upon
security professionals to
have a clear understanding of the basic facts concerning earthquakes. Which of
the following is an
incorrect statement?
A. Earthquakes are unpredictable and strike without warning.
B. Earthquakes may last from a few seconds to as long as five minutes.
C. The actual movement of the ground in an earthquake is usually the direct
cause of injury or death.
D. Earthquakes may also trigger landslides and generate tidal waves.
E. Most casualties during an earthquake result from falling material.
Qlik Sense System Administrator Certification The Qlik Sense System Administrator Certification Exam measures your ability
to identify requirements for environments, install and set up Qlik Sense
Enterprise, manage environments, and monitor and troubleshoot. This exam has 50
multiple-choice questions to answer in 2 hours.
Prerequisites At least 6 months experience as an administrator of a Microsoft Windows
Server-based environment
Experience working with Qlik Sense sites and the Qlik Management Console, to
provide data and application governance, library maintenance, as well as user
and application security
Experience managing the policies and options that run the Qlik Sense servers and
apps
Experience creating rules and managing the visualization streams
Knowledge of networking and Active Directory configuration, proxies,
intermediate web servers, load balancers, etc.
Familiarity with Windows tools and logs created (e.g., Event Viewer, Services
Console, DCOM Console, Windows Registry)
Experience using NSLookUp, Telnet, Ping, NetStat, Fiddler, and other browser
tools to troubleshoot connectivity, interoperability, configuration,
performance, etc.
Recommended Preparation Resources Instructor-Led Training: Deploy and Administer Qlik Sense
Qlik Continuous Classroom: System Administrator
Qlik Sense Certification Exam Study Guide
FREE Qlik Sense System Administrator Certification Practice Questions
Exam Topics
Plan Installation (20% of the exam) Given a scenario, recommend environment architecture
Given a scenario, determine appropriate security strategies
Install System (22% of the exam) Configure initial environment for Qlik Sense access
Configure multi-node deployment
Configure proxy and virtual proxies
Manage Content (34% of the exam) Configure tasks based on business and system needs
Apply procedural concepts to organize external content (Content Library and
Extensions)
Apply steps to manage streams and apps
Apply steps to manage privileges in the Qlik Sense deployment
Configure user roles and properties
Monitor and Maintain (24% of the exam)
Investigate Qlik Sense errors and issues
Given a scenario, demonstrate an understanding of how to monitor system
performance
Apply the steps to perform a backup and restore
Apply the steps to perform upgrade(s)
QUESTION 1 A company decides to move servers from on premise to a cloud. A system
administrator performs a backup,
restore, and brings the server online. When users open the app on the hub, they
get an error message indicating the app could not be found.
The system administrator confirms that apps are present in the required location
and NO changes have been made.
What could be causing the issue?
A. Shared persistence path is NOT reachable
B. Synchronized persistence is in place
C. The app has been moved from one stream to another
D. The security rules were broken when the servers were migrated
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 A single-node Qlik Sense environment has all services up and running. Users
report apps and sheets are slow to open.
A system administrator works remotely and does NOT have access to the shared
file system for the
environment. The system administrator’s computer can make requests to the Qlik
Sense Repository Service.
Due to the system performance issues, a system administrator can NOT run any new
reloads. The system
administrator receives a warning email about high RAM usage on the server.
Which step should the system administrator take to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Request the “http://<server.domain.com>/engine/performancecheck/” API
B. Access the server remotely and inspect the logs in %ProgramData%\Qlik\Sense\Log\Engine
C. Request the “https://<server.domain.com>/engine/healthcheck/” API
D. Request the “https://<server.domain.com>/qmc/audit” API
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 A system administrator creates a custom property called “dept” and assigns
it to users and apps. The value of
the custom property are department names such as Accounting, Finance, and IT.
Users with the same value
for “dept” can see and edit each other’s apps. Users with different values for
the property should NOT see each other’s apps.
Which security rule should the administrator use to meet this requirement?
A. Resource: App_*, Stream_*
Conditions: user.@dept=app.@dept
B. Resource: App_*
Conditions: user.@dept=resource.id
C. Resource: App_*
Conditions: user.@dept=resource.@dept
D. Resource: App_*
Conditions: user.@dept=resource.description
Exam ID HPE6-A71
Exam type Proctored
Exam duration 1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length 60 questions
Passing score 65%
Delivery languages Japanese, English, Latin American Spanish
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:
Implementing Aruba Mobility, Rev. 19.21
Additional study materials
Exam description This exam tests your skills with the WLAN design, deployment, and
troubleshooting of Aruba Mobile First Network Solutions in complex highly
available campus and branch environments. It also tests your ability to
configure specialized applications, management, and security requirements for a
WLAN such as UCC Voice and advanced security features.
Ideal candidate for this exam
Typical candidates for this exam are networking IT professionals with a minimum
of two years of advanced-level implementation experience with Aruba WLAN
solutions and a minimum of three years of experience with wired LAN
infrastructure and switching and routing technologies.
Exam contents
This exam has 60 questions.
Advice to help you take this exam
Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you
take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides,
practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an
expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events,
supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure
you will pass the exam.
Objectives This exam validates that you can:
Percentage of Exam Sections/Objectives
20% Integrate and implement Aruba Mobile First architecture components and
explain their uses. Integrate components of the Aruba Mobile First Architecture.
Differentiate between standalone mode and Master Controller Mode (MCM) features
and recommend use cases.
Differentiate the use of packet forwarding modes (tunnel, decrypt-tunnel,
split-tunnel, and bridge).
Differentiate between redundancy methods, and describe the benefits of L2 and L3
clustering.
Explain Remote Access architectures and how to integrate the architectures.
Describe and differentiate advanced licensing features.
20% Configure and validate Aruba WLAN secure employee and guest solutions. • Configure Remote Access with Aruba Solutions such as RAP and VIA.
• Configure and deploy redundant controller solutions based upon a given design.
• Configure a Mesh WLAN.
38% Implement advanced services and security. • Enable multicast DNS features to support discovery across VLAN boundaries.
• Configure role derivation, and explain and implement advanced role features.
• Configure an AAA server profile for a user or administrative access.
• Implement Mobility Infrastructure hardening features.
• Explain Clarity features and functions.
• Implement Voice WLAN based upon a given design.
• Configure primary zones and data zones to support MultiZone AP.
• Implement mobility (roaming) in an Aruba wireless environment.
• Implement tunneled node to secure ArubaOS switches.
10% Manage and monitor Aruba solutions. • Use AirWave to monitor an Aruba Mobility Master and Mobility Controller.
• Perform maintenance upgrades and operational maintenance.
12% Troubleshoot Aruba WLAN solutions. • Troubleshoot controller communication.
• Troubleshoot the WLAN.
• Troubleshoot Remote Access.
• Troubleshoot issues related to services and security.
• Troubleshoot role-based access, per-port based security and Airmatch.
QUESTION 1 An administrator deploys an AP at a branch office. The branch office has a
private WAN circuit that provides
connectivity to a corporate office controller. An Ethernet port on the AP is
connected to a network storage
device that contains sensitive information. The administrator is concerned about
sending this traffic in cleartext across the private WAN circuit.
What can the administrator do to prevent this problem?
A. Enable IPSec encryption on the AP's wired ports.
B. Convert the campus AP into a RAP.
C. Redirect the wired port traffic to an AP-to-controller GRE tunnel.
D. Enable AP encryption for wired ports.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 An administrator needs to modify a VAP used for a branch office RAP. The
VAP's operating mode is currently
defined as backup and uses tunnel mode forwarding. The administrator wants to
implement split-tunnel forwarding mode in the VAP.
Which WLAN operating mode must the administrator define for the VAP before the
tunnel forwarding mode can be changed to split-tunnel?
A. Trusted
B. Always
C. Persistent
D. Standard
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 An administrator creates service-based policies for AirGroup on the Mobility
Master (MM). The administrator can define location-based policy limits based on
which information?
A. controller names, controller groups, and controller Fully Qualified Domain
Names (FQDNs)
B. AP names, AP groups, controller names, and controller groups
C. AP Fully Qualified Location Names (FQLNs) and controller Fully Qualified
Domain Names (FQDNs)
D. AP names, AP groups, and AP Fully Qualified Location Names (FQLNs)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 An administrator supports a RAP at a branch office. A user's device that is
attached to the Ethernet port is assigned an 802.1X AAA policy and is configured
for tunneled node.
How is the user's traffic transmitted to the corporate office?
A. It is not encapsulated by GRE and not protected with IPSec.
B. It is encapsulated by GRE and protected with IPSec.
C. It is not encapsulated by GRE but is protected with IPSec.
D. It is encapsulated by GRE and not protected with IPSec.
Description MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect - Level 1A MuleSoft Certified Platform
Architect should be able to define and be responsible for an organization’s
Anypoint Platform strategy. The MCPA – Level 1 exam validates that an architect
has the required knowledge and skills to direct the emergence of an effective
application network out of individual integration solutions following API-led
connectivity across an organization using Anypoint Platform. S/he should be able
to:
Optimize and shape the Anypoint Platform deployment in the specific
organizational context, working with business, infrastructure, InfoSec, and
other teams.
Define how Anypoint Platform is used in conjunction with other tools and
applications in the organization.
Define the usage of Anypoint Platform and the corresponding organizational and
process changes needed to help the Platform be sustainable.
Provide guidance and drive creation of standards, reusable assets, and
automation required for scale and multi-LOB adoption.
A downloadable data sheet for the exam can be found here. Format Format: Multiple-choice, closed book, proctored online or in a
testing center
Length: 58 questions
Duration: 120 minutes (2 hours)
Pass score: 70%
Language: English
The exam can be taken a maximum of 5 times, with a 24 hour wait between each
attempt.
Cost $375 The exam can be purchased with one of the following. Each includes a
coupon for one free retake.
1.5 Flexible Training Credits (FTC) A voucher obtained by attending the instructor-led Anypoint Platform
Architecture: Application Networks course
Additional retakes (attempts 3 to 5) are $250 or 1 FTC and do not come with a
free retake.
Validity
The certification expires two years from the date of passing.
Preparation
The best preparation for the exam is to take the instructor-led Anypoint
Platform Architecture: Application Networks course. Candidates should be
familiar with all of the content in the course and be able to apply the
concepts.
The following resources are available to assist in a candidate’s preparation:
Instructor-led training: Anypoint Platform Architecture: Application Networks
Recommended as the most effective and efficient method of preparation 3-day
class
Private and public classes available
Onsite and online classes available
Includes a certification voucher for this exam
Practice quiz 20+ multiple-choice questions
Comparable difficulty to the proctored exam
Topics The exam validates that the candidate can perform the following tasks.
Explaining Application Network Basics Explain MuleSoft’s proposal for closing the IT delivery gap
Describe the role and characteristics of the "modern API"
Define and describe the benefits of API-led connectivity and application
networks
Define outcome-based delivery (OBD)
Correctly use the terms API, API implementation, API client, API consumer, and
API invocation
Describe the capabilities and high-level components of Anypoint Platform
ARC:NET Module 1
ARC:NET Module 2
Establishing Organizational and Platform Foundations Describe the purpose and roles of a C4E
Identify KPIs to measure the success of a C4E
Given specific organizational requirements, preferences, and constraints,
identify all suitable Anypoint Platform deployment options
Select Anypoint Platform identity management vs client management for the
correct purpose
ARC:NET Module 2
ARC:NET Module 3
Designing APIs and API Interactions Break down functional requirements into business-aligned APIs with effective
granularity
Given a set of APIs and specific preferences and organizational characteristics,
recommend the use of an Enterprise Data Model or Bounded Context Data Models
Identify changes to an API that would require or not require a major version
increment
When asynchronous execution of API invocations is needed, select when to
appropriately use polling or callbacks
Identify idempotent HTTP methods and HTTP-native support for optimistic
concurrency
Describe the creation and publication of reusable API-related assets using RAML
and Anypoint Platform components
ARC:NET Module 4
ARC:NET Module 6
Bounded Context
Why You Should Avoid a CDM
Canonical Data Models & Microservices
HTTP/1.1: Semantics and Content
HTTP/1.1: Caching
Semantic Versioning 2.0.0
Semantic versioning of REST APIs?
Following API-Led Connectivity
Identify appropriate APIs to implement a business process and assign them to
layers of API-led connectivity
Assign APIs to layers according to ownership, functional focus, and rate of
change
Given specific requirements and organizational characteristics, recommend the
most appropriate approach relating the API data model of System APIs to that of
their backend system
Governing APIs on Anypoint Platform Given specific preferences and constraints, select API policy enforcement
with or without API proxies
Select appropriate API policies to enforce non-functional constraints on API
invocations
Given an API policy with specific characteristics, identify any change required
in the corresponding RAML definition
Given a layer of API-led connectivity, identify API policies that are typically
applied to that layer and the scenarios needing custom policies
Identify which types of APIs and other remote interfaces are or are not amenable
to management by API Manager
ARC:NET Module 5
Controlling Access to APIs
Describe when and how to pass client ID and secret to an API Describe when and
how to pass client ID and secret to an API Describe when and how to pass client
ID and secret to an API
Explain how to register an API client for access to an API version
ARC:NET Module 5
Delivering APIs Describe the automation capabilities of Anypoint Platform for DevOps, CI/CD,
and testing
Compare unit and integration tests and specify where MUnit is best employed
Explain how to use autodiscovery to link an API implementation to an API
instance managed with API Manager
Specify how and when to promote APIs with API Manager
Identify when redeployment of API implementations is necessary
Deploying Mule Applications to CloudHub
Describe the fundamentals of deployments, networking, and routing on CloudHub
Select CloudHub worker sizes and configuration as appropriate
Describe the scenarios for which Object Store should be used with CloudHub
ARC:NET Module 7
Architecting Performant and Resilient APIs Identify the factors involved in scaling API performance
Identify the differences between the CloudHub Shared and Dedicated Load
Balancers
Identify single points of failure in typical CloudHub usage
Select strategies that help API clients guard against failures in API
invocations
ARC:NET Module 7
ARC:NET Module 9
HYSTRIX Defend Your App
Let’s talk about Resilience
Eclipse MicroProfile Fault Tolerance
Monitoring and Analyzing Application Networks Identify the components of Anypoint Platform that generate data for
monitoring and alerting
Describe the metrics collected by Anypoint Platform on the level of API
invocations
Describe and select between the options for performing API analytics within and
outside of Anypoint Platform
Specify alerts to define for key metrics of API invocations for all layers of
API-led connectivity
Specify alerts to define for API implementations
ARC:NET Module 10
Delivery methods
The exam is administered via the Kryterion Webassessor testing platform. The
exam can be taken in-person at a testing center or online using a web camera.
In-person at a Kryterion Testing Center:
Over 1000 locations worldwide
Onsite instructions
Test-taker guide
Online using the Kryterion Webassessor testing platform:
Requires a webcam - a laptop webcam can be used, an external camera is not
required
Requires internet connectivity with 1 Mbps upload, 1 Mbps download, jitter
<50ms, ping <200ms
Check your internet speed and reliability
Note: Some candidates are expelled from the exam for an unstable connection even
after checking reliability with the tool. If you think your connection could
potentially be unreliable, we strongly recommend scheduling your exam at a test
center.
Online instructions
Test-taker guide
Registration To register for the exam:
Go to Webassessor.
Create a user profile.
Log in.
Select Register for an Exam.
Select the MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect – Level 1 exam.
Select either the Online Proctoring Option or the Kryterion Test Center option.
On the payment screen, select to pay by credit card or enter a voucher/coupon
code.
Note: A fee applies if an exam is cancelled or rescheduled within 72 hours of
its scheduled time, even if the exam was purchased with a voucher. QUESTION 1
What API policy would LEAST likely be applied to a Process API?
A. Custom circuit breaker
B. Client ID enforcement
C. Rate limiting
D. JSON threat protection
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 What is a key performance indicator (KPI) that measures the success of a
typical C4E that is immediately apparent in responses from the Anypoint Platform
APIs?
A. The number of production outage incidents reported in the last 24 hours
B. The number of API implementations that have a publicly accessible HTTP
endpoint and are being managed by Anypoint Platform
C. The fraction of API implementations deployed manually relative to those
deployed using a CI/CD tool
D. The number of API specifications in RAML or OAS format published to Anypoint
Exchange
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 An organization is implementing a Quote of the Day API that caches today's
quote.
What scenario can use the CloudHub Object Store via the Object Store connector
to persist the cache's state?
A. When there are three CloudHub deployments of the API implementation to three
separate CloudHub regions that must share the cache state.
B. When there are two CloudHub deployments of the API implementation by two
Anypoint Platform business groups to the same CloudHub region that must share
the cache state.
C. When there is one deployment of the API implementation to CloudHub and
another deployment to a customer-hosted Mule runtime that must share the cache
state.
D. When there is one CloudHub deployment of the API implementation to three
CloudHub workers that must share the cache state.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 What condition requires using a CloudHub Dedicated Load Balancer?
A. When cross-region load balancing is required between separate deployments of
the same Mule application
B. When custom DNS names are required for API implementations deployed to
customer-hosted Mule runtimes
C. When API invocations across multiple CloudHub workers must be load balanced
D. When server-side load-balanced TLS mutual authentication is required between
API implementations and API clients
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 What do the API invocation metrics provided by Anypoint Platform provide?
A. ROI metrics from APIs that can be directly shared with business users
B. Measurements of the effectiveness of the application network based on the
level of reuse
C. Data on past API invocations to help identify anomalies and usage patterns
across various APIs
D. Proactive identification of likely future policy violations that exceed a
given threat threshold
Avaya Aura® Call Center Elite manages the collection, queuing, assignment and
delivery of voice work items to appropriately skilled agents in the contact
center. Intelligent routing and resource selection features, determines if
customers should be served by the least busy agent, the first available agent,
or the agent with skills that best match their needs. Call Center Elite uses the
phantom call capabilities of Avaya Aura® Communication Manager to deliver work
items to the contact center agents which supports inbound and outbound contacts.
The ACIS - Avaya Aura® Call Center Elite credential validates the candidate has
achieved an enhanced level of proficiency required to integrate and implement
core and complex products of the Avaya Aura® Call Center Elite.
To earn the ACIS - Avaya Aura®: Call Center Elite, the candidate must pass
7392X, Avaya Aura® Call Center Elite Exam
The recommended training for the credential requirements is in the learning map
below.
QUESTION 1 Which three items are needed to properly configure a hunt group in an Expert
Agent Selection (EAS) enabled call center? (Choose three.)
A. the Class of Restriction (COR)
B. the group extension
C. the trunk group number
D. the call distribution method
E. the Vector Directory Number (VDN)
Correct Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION 2 When creating a vector directory number, or VDN, which four options must be
configured to ensure that the call center works correctly? (Choose four.)
A. Hunt Group
B. Vector
C. Extension
D. Skill Level
E. Agent Login
F. Measured Format
Correct Answer: A,B,D,E
QUESTION 3 To ensure that announcements always start at the beginning when played as
part of a vector, which action must be taken?
A. Use Analog announcements only
B. Set the queue field to Yes
C. Use external announcements
D. Create forced announcements
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 A customer wants the ability to track the call types for Automatic Call
Distribution (ACD) calls answered by agents. These call types will be defined by
the customer.
Which call center feature can the customer use to track their defined call
types?
A. Redirection on No Answer (RONA)
B. Call Work Codes (CWC)
C. Least Occupied Agent (LOA)
D. Feature Access Codes (FAC)
E. Multiple Call Handling (MCH)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 A supervisor with console permission can enter an agent’s login ID, and add
or remove an agent’s skill via
Feature Access Code (FAC). Agents can also dial FAC to add or remove a skill.
Which statement is true about the configuration of this feature?
A. The supervisors class of services (COS) must have the field “Add/Remove Agent
Skills” set to y.
B. The agent’s COS must have the field “Add/Remove Agent Skills” set to y.
C. The supervisor’s class of restriction (COR) must have the field “Can Force a
Work State Change” set to y.
D. The supervisors COS must have the field “Can Force a Work State Change” set
to y.
E. The supervisors COR must have the field “Add/Remove Agent Skills” set to y.
