Exam ID HPE0-A126P
Exam type Performance based
Exam duration 8 hours
Passing score 70%
Delivery languages English
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:
Aruba Advanced Network Design and Solutions, Rev. 20.22
Register for this Exam You need an HPE Learner ID and a Pearson VUE login and password.
Exam description This practical exam tests your ability to design a secure campus wired,
wireless, remote access and management solution for an enterprise mobility
project using Aruba OS (AOS) 8 and Aruba Switches OS CX. Candidates create
design solutions that include redundancy, authentication and integration with
existing infrastructure. Candidates will complete an IRIS BOM, IRIS network
diagram and a VRF diagram for RF planning. The candidate will also answer
customer questions.
Ideal candidate for this exam Ideal candidates are networking IT professionals with a minimum of three to
five years’ experience in designing complex enterprise-level mobile first
networks. Candidates should have familiarity with building a detailed bill of
materials using the Aruba Controller, Aruba switches, Access Point, Instant,
ClearPass and AirWave products for secure, guest and voice deployments.
Candidates are familiar with AOS 8, Airwave Visual RF Plan 8, Aruba Instant,
ClearPass, AirWave and Central management.
Exam contents Here are types of questions to expect:
Other - Performance Based
Advice to help you take this exam Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before
you take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides,
practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an
expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events,
supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure
you will pass the exam.
Objectives
This exam validates that you can:
45% IRIS BOM Provide a detailed Bill of Materials (BOM) listing MM, controller models,
Aruba switches, line cards, transceivers, APs, AMs, SMs, Mesh APs, license types
and counts. Indicate the equipment per MDF/IDF closets. Specify the necessary
servers such as AirWave and ClearPass, Meridian with licensing specified for a
given scenario.
30% Essay Questions Answer typical customer questions on Aruba solutions including enterprise
Campus Design, Remote Access, VIA and RAP solutions, Aruba Instant and Cloud
based solutions, AirWave and Aruba Central management solutions and Meridian
features.
Provide a technical explanation of AP to Controller data-plane and control plane
communications, Controller Discovery Mechanisms and priorities, design of Aruba
mobility Solutions (Layer 2 and Layer 3 mobility). Switching features such as
VSF and stacking.
Provide detailed and comprehensive explanation of secure and guest Aruba WLAN
technologies such as AppRF, WIPS, RF Protect, and ClearPass. Additionally
explain the underlying dependencies, advantages and disadvantages of each
solution.
Explain QOS and voice prioritization technologies to optimize the network for
mobile and BYOD devices.
15% AirWave Visual RF Use the AirWave Visual RF Plan tool to create an RF design to meet the
customer requirements and Aruba best practices.
Move APs and AMs to the appropriate high density WLAN locations on a VisualRF
floor plan.
Create a Visual RF plan and export the RF as a customer deliverable on a given
customer floor plan.
10% IRIS Network Diagram Determine appropriate placement of Aruba equipment in IRIS topology diagram.
Place the proper equipment into the MDF/IDF groups for access, distribution,
core, or DMZ of the network diagram.
Make the connections between devices, switches to switch, switch to AP, MC, MM
and servers
Exam overview This exam tests your knowledge of wireless network design, including:
Site surveys
Wired and wireless infrastructure
Mobility
WLAN high availability
Exam Description The Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks v1.0 (ENWLSD 300-425) exam
is a 90-minute exam associated with the CCNP Enterprise and Cisco Certified
Specialist - Enterprise Wireless Design certifications. This exam certifies a
candidate's knowledge of wireless network design including site surveys, wired
and wireless infrastructure, mobility and WLAN high availability. The course,
Designing Cisco Enterprise Wireless Networks, helps candidates to prepare for
this exam.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be
included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any
specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and
for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without
notice.
1.1 Collect design requirements and evaluate constraints 1.1.a Client density
1.1.b Real time applications
1.1.c AP type
1.1.d Deployment type (data, location, voice, video)
1.1.e Security
1.2 Describe material attenuation and its effect on wireless design
1.3 Perform and analyze a Layer 1 site survey
1.4 Perform a pre-deployment site survey
1.5 Perform a post deployment site survey
1.6 Perform a predictive site survey
1.7 Utilize planning tools and evaluate key network metrics (Ekahau, AirMagnet,
PI, Chanalyzer, Spectrum Analyzer)
2.1 Determine physical infrastructure requirements such as AP power, cabling,
switch port capacity, mounting, and grounding
2.2 Determine logical infrastructure requirements such as WLC/AP licensing
requirements based on the type of wireless architecture
2.3 Design radio management
2.3.a RRM
2.3.b RF profiles
2.3.c RxSOP
2.4 Apply design requirements for these types of wireless networks
2.4.a Data
2.4.b Voice and video
2.4.c Location
2.4.d Hyperlocation
2.5 Design high-density wireless networks and their associated components
(campus, lecture halls, conference rooms)
2.6 Design wireless bridging (mesh)
2.6.a Modes of operation
2.6.b Ethernet bridging
2.6.c WGB and roaming
3.1 Design mobility groups based on mobility roles
3.2 Optimize client roaming
3.3 Validate mobility tunneling for data and control path
4.1 Design high availability for controllers
4.1.a Network availability through LAG
4.1.b Stateful Switchover (SSO)
4.1.c Anchor controller priority and redundancy
4.2 Design high availability for APs
4.2.a AP prioritization
4.2.b Fall-back (assigning primary, secondary, and tertiary)
Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass: 43
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live
An IBM Certified Solution Advisor – IBM Cloud Foundations is an individual who
will engage with clients that are looking to select and design a solution that
is based on IBM Cloud. The Solution Advisor can come from a sales professional,
architect, consultant or developer background. They will have an appreciation
for the responsibilities of each of these roles, and know when to involve them
to deliver a successful outcome for their client. They can also demonstrate how
the leading industry, Open and IBM solution offerings can help customers realize
these benefits.
This exam consists of 6 sections as described below. For more detail, please see
the study guide on the Exam Preparation tab.
IBM Cloud Overview 25% Understand the types of Cloud deployment options
Explain the difference between SaaS, PaaS and IaaS
Understand the different IBM Cloud Account Types
Understand how to use the cost estimator tool
Understand the benefits of the IBM Multicloud strategy
Understand IBM Cloud Support Plans
Explain the benefits of Availability Zones
Understand the international compliance standards that are used by IBM Cloud
Explain the features and benefits of Identity and Access Management (IAM)
Compute Options 22% Understand the benefits and options of Classic Infrastructure
Understand the benefits and options for IBM Kubernetes Service
Understand the benefits and options for IBM Red Hat OpenShift
Understand the benefits and options for IBM Virtual Private Cloud (Gen 1 & Gen
2)
Understand the benefits and options for IBM VMware Solutions
Understand the benefits and options for IBM Cloud Foundry
Storage and Networking 15% Understand the benefits and options of IBM File Storage
Understand the benefits and options of IBM Block Storage
Understand the benefits and options of IBM Cloud Object Storage
Understand the benefits and options of IBM Backup, Recovery and Replication
Solutions
Understand the benefits and options of IBM Cloud Networking
Services 23% Understand the different Application Integration options on IBM Cloud
Explain how Internet of Things (IoT) can be leveraged within IBM Cloud
Describe the value of Blockchain
Explain how DevOps is implemented in IBM Cloud and OpenShift
Understand the benefits and capabilities of adding AI into applications
Understand the different analytics options
Understand the different Database options
Understand the benefits and options of IBM Hyper Protect Crypto services
Understand the benefits and options of IBM Hyper Protect DB as a Service (DBaaS)
Software (IBM Cloud Paks) 7% Understand the benefits and capabilities of IBM Cloud Paks
Understand the benefits and capabilities of IBM Cloud Pak Solutions
Number of questions: 61
Number of questions to pass: 45
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live
This intermediate-level exam is for those that are self-sufficient in planning,
installing, and configuring an IBM FileNet P8 V5.5.3 environment.
This exam consists of four sections described below. For more detail, please see
the study guide on the Exam Preparation tab.
Section 1: Planning, Preparation, and Security 25% Identify requirements for high availability, architecture, and supported
environments. (including network ports, software compatibility report, fix pack
compatibility report)
Identify the user accounts required for FileNet P8 platform.
Identify database requirements.
Identify LDAP requirements.
Define storage options for object stores.
Define/Identify application server configuration requirements.
Identify basic performance settings.
Section 2: Installation and Upgrade 30% Install FileNet P8 in either a single-server or multi-server environment.
Utilize the Configuration Manager tool.
Upgrade FileNet P8 in either a single-server or multi-server environment.
Section 3: Configuration 25% Define the proper procedures for initial startup tasks.
Create and configure domains, object stores, database storage areas, file
storage areas, workflow systems, and fixed content devices.
Configure Content Search Services.
Differentiate between various CFS configurations.
Configure SSL connections to CPE.
Configure client application connections to CPE (Content Platform Engine).
Configure CPE in an SSO environment.
Section 4: Troubleshooting and System Validation 20% Identify tools to monitor upgrade status (AutomaticUpgradeStatus, log
files).
Identify and use log files for troubleshooting.
Identify and use the tools for system validation.
Number of questions: 62
Number of questions to pass: 45
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live
The key areas covered by this exam include the following: Advise clients on recommended practices for blockchain architectures
Ensure that IBM Blockchain Platform is an appropriate fit for their clients'
requirements
Advise clients on the initial selection, design and implementation of an IBM
Blockchain Platform solution
Advise clients on the ongoing responsibilities of maintaining an IBM Blockchain
Platform solution
Blockchain for Business Concepts 23% Explain the business context that is relevant to blockchain
Articulate enterprise blockchain concepts
Compare enterprise blockchains with other blockchains
Identify when to use a blockchain solution versus an alternative technology
(e.g. a database system)
Demonstrate an understanding of the key stakeholders in a blockchain solution
Outline the Hyperledger projects and goals
Outline what is Hyperledger Fabric
Understand some of the enterprise blockchain solutions in which IBM plays a part
Hyperledger Fabric Architecture Concepts 19% Design a solution architecture for a Hyperledger Fabric-based blockchain
Summarize the non-functional requirements of a Hyperledger Fabric-based
blockchain
Explain the lifecycle of a Hyperledger Fabric transaction
Summarize the principles of good smart contract design
Understand and identify concerns related to GDPR and Personally Identifiable
Information (PII)
Explain the components of a Hyperledger Fabric blockchain
Describe the required Hyperledger Fabric development assets
Document the channels strategy for Hyperledger Fabric-based solution
Summarize the factors that affect Hyperledger Fabric transaction latency and
throughput performance
Identify integration points between Hyperledger Fabric and existing systems of
record and middleware
IBM Blockchain Platform Business Considerations 29% Articulate the value of IBM Blockchain Platform
Question good versus bad use cases of IBM Blockchain Platform
Analyze the incentives to join IBM Blockchain Platform
Summarize the IBM Blockchain Platform deployment options
Identify the IBM support and services channels
Explain the key roles in an IBM Blockchain Platform solution
Describe how IBM Blockchain Platform enables the governance of a blockchain
network
Appreciate the liability responsibilities for smart contract and other assets
when using IBM Blockchain Platform
IBM Blockchain Platform Technical Principles 29% Enumerate and understand the components of IBM Blockchain Platform
Explain the features of the IBM Blockchain Platform VS Code extension
Explain the features of the IBM Blockchain Platform web console
Recommend an IBM Blockchain Platform network configuration
Summarize the Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) available for IBM Blockchain
Platform
Advise how to secure IBM Blockchain Platform
Advise how to manage identities in IBM Blockchain Platform
Plan a migration from another platform to IBM Blockchain Platform
Describe how to operate an IBM Blockchain Platform network
Plan a migration between smart contract versions using IBM Blockchain Platform
Explain the technical process for hosting IBM Blockchain Platform components
outside of the public IBM Cloud
Summarize the technical process for joining an existing IBM Blockchain Platform
network
Number of questions: 61
Number of questions to pass: 41
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live
Used to earn the IBM Certified Solution Architect - Watson IoT Maximo V1
certification
Section 1: Basic Architecture 15% Define the basic architecture of Maximo Enterprise Asset Management/Asset
Performance Management (EAM/APM) components (functional vs technical)
Describe the deployment options (on-prem, Cloud/SaaS, hybrid - including
Kubernetes)
Describe multi-language support in Maximo (language tables, configuring
translations, loading translations, etc.)
Describe the Maximo Architecture Solution view and data flows
Describe the Maximo Enterprise Asset Management/Asset Performance Management (EAM/APM)
mobility architecture
Section 2: Maximo Standard Functionality 22% Explain the key concepts of inventory management
Explain the key concepts of Enterprise Asset Management/Asset Performance
Management (EAM/APM)
Explain the key concepts of procurement in support of work and inventory (asset)
management
Explain the key concepts of Contract Management in support of work and asset
management
Explain the key concepts of Work Management Enterprise Asset Management (EAM)
Describe the 5 models available on Maximo Asset Performance Management (APM) on
Cloud
Section 3: Maximo Industry Solutions/Add-ons 14% Describe the mobility solutions for Maximo Enterprise Asset Management (EAM)
Describe the Maximo Scheduling Solutions
Describe the Industry Solutions - New Models
Describe the process of adding New Models to Maximo Asset Performance Management
(APM)
Section 4: Reporting/Analysis 13% Discuss scoring and how it affects Work Management
Discuss predictive and AI technology and how it affects work
Discuss KPI and Work Centers and how it impacts Work Management
Discuss reporting both BIRT/Cognos and how it affects Enterprise Asset
Management/Asset Performance Management (EAM/APM)
Section 5: Security 11% Describe Maximo authentication methods
Explain Maximo Security Groups and their configuration
Explain Maximo security controls
Describe how a single security asset management role is achieved by Maximo
Enterprise Asset Management/Asset Performance Management (EAM/APM)
Describe Maximo Cloud security options
Section 6: Initial Setup 11% Explain the purpose of Maximo's multi-org/multi-site capabilities
Understand the General Ledger (GL) Account Structure and code usage in a
Multi-Organization site configuration
Summarize other initial setup requirements for Maximo based on customer usage
Section 7: Customization/Configuration 14% Explain the Maximo integration for Asset Performance Management (APM)
Explain concepts of Maximo Formulas and their usage
Explain the benefits of using Automation Scripting
Understand the tools available for the Maximo UI framework for configuration and
customization
Explain when to use Migration Manager
About Adobe Certified Expert (ACE) Exams An Adobe Certified Expert demonstrates expertise in helping clients realize
value in an Adobe solution.
Adobe's certification exams follow industry-accepted procedures to ensure
validity and reliability. We work with industry experts to create our exams,
which represent real-world requirements and objectives for the job roles we
certify.
This guide is designed to provide the recommendations needed to prepare for your
Adobe Certified Expert exam, and help you determine when you are ready to take
the exam.
AEM Business Practitioner General Exam Information • Exam name: AEM Business Practitioner Exam
• Exam number: AD0-E102
• Number of questions: 50
• Time limit: 80 minutes
• Format: multiple choice, multiple select
• Language offered: English
• Delivery: online proctored (requires camera access) or test center proctored
• Passing score: All Adobe exams are reported on a scale of 300 to 700. The
passing score for each exam is 550. For more information about scaled scoring,
visit the FAQs.
• Exam price: $180 (Ready to register? Click here.)
AEM Business Practitioner Exam Target Audience • Individuals in partner organizations and freelancers who perform an author
or analyst job role for AEM solutions
• Marketing specialists who know the features and capabilities needed to engage
developers to define a solution for business needs
• Customer Power Users or Product Owners
The AEM Business Practitioner Role At a minimum, the Adobe-certified AEM Business Practitioner has experience
with AEM features and capabilities needed to engage developers to find business
solutions, a deep insight into modules such as Sites, Assets, and Forms, and an
understanding of what modules are present and be able to recommend Adobe
Experience Cloud solutions to meet business needs.
It is recommended that the candidate has at least two years of relevant field
experience before testing.
The minimally-qualified AEM Business Practitioner should be able to perform
the following tasks without any assistance: • Understand the capabilities provided by out-of-the-box components
available in AEM (what can and cannot be done), and when customer development is
needed
• Use the AEM Content Management Systems (CMS)
• Use AEM to manage Digital Assets
• Use Experience Fragments
• Understand and participate in workflows
• Analyze business needs to identify a solution
• Create business requirements documents that developers can use in the creation
of an AEM website
• Describe all the mobile capabilities of AEM (e.g., content services and
responsive web design)
AEM Business Practitioner Exam Topics The tasks measured by the exam are grouped into the following domains:
Am I ready?
Yes
No
Education • List relevant AEM features and capabilities
• Recommend how to leverage AEM features to meet business needs
• Apply procedural concepts necessary to conduct training for authors
Architecture • Recommend an Information Architecture that leverages AEM Standard Features
to meet business needs
• Describe how AEM integrates with third-party services
• Define roles and rights
• Describe caching approaches
Business Analysis • Map standard modules of AEM to different business problems for the
customer
• Apply content management concepts for AEM modules
• Identify typical project stakeholders
• Apply procedural concepts necessary to support collaboration of all parties
involved
• Determine how to meet the core business goals while remaining within budget
and/or scope
• Determine how questions from developers should be answered with respect to the
business goals
Solution • Determine how to configure and use content components to show best
practices of AEM
• Verify the correct implementation of features, and locate and describe
occurring errors
Distribution of Content Covered on the Exam: The questions on the exam are distributed as follows for each domain. (Note:
each question carries the same weight and there is no partial credit for any
question)
Domain
Percent of Exam
Education
Architecture
Business Analysis
Solution
How do I know if I am ready to take the exam? Nothing can guarantee that you will pass your test, however; the more
practical work experiences you have and the more training you complete, the
better your chances are to pass the test.
Since Adobe exams measure knowledge and skills for a specific job role, one of
the best ways to prepare for the exam is to ensure you have the minimum work
experience, as described in this guide.
What training is available to help me prepare for the exam?
Is training required? You are not required to complete training before taking the exam; however,
training can significantly increase your knowledge of and skills with Adobe
Experience Manager. It is important to note that training alone will not provide
you with the knowledge and skills required to pass an exam. Successful,
on-the-job experience, is critical to providing you the knowledge needed to pass
the exam.
Recommended study materials for this exam:
Courses • Manage and Deliver Digital Assets Using Adobe Experience Manager
• Create and Manage Correspondence using Adobe Experience Manager
• Design Adaptive Forms Using Adobe Experience Manager
• Create Web Experiences Using Adobe Experience Manager
• Develop Multilingual and Multinational Sites in Adobe Experience Manager
• What's New in AEM 6.4
• What's New in AEM 6.4 – Custom
Online Documentation • Experience Manager Sites 6.4 Administering User Guide
• Experience Manager Sites 6.3 Deploying User Guide
• Experience Manager Dispatcher User Guide
• AEM Sites Implementation Guide
• Experience Manager 6.4 AEM Communities User Guide
• AEM Assets Discovery Checklist
• Experience Manager Sites 6.4 Developing User Guide
• Experience Manager Sites 6.4 Authoring User Guide
• Experience Manager 6.4 Assets User Guide
• Experience Manager 6.4 Forms User Guide
• AEM Assets 6.3 Implementation Guide
QUESTION 1 An author uploads a PDF document and receives a “Restricted Files” error.
What is causing this problem?
A. The file extension is not registered as an allowed asset MIMES in the OSGI
config, Day CQ DAM Asset Upload Restriction.
B. The file extension is case-sensitive and should be all lower case.
C. The user does not have permission to upload an asset with the specific file
extension.
D. The MIME Type mapping setup for the file extension does not exist in OSGI
config, Day CQ Scene7 Asset Mime type Service.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 A company uploaded several images that represent products, and each product
is associated with a unique
SKU number. The product owner would like the ability to search for multiple
products by SKU number.
What two steps must be completed to do this? (Choose two.)
A. Customize the Assets Admin Search rail to include a Single Property Predicate
and configure the property name to the SKU number
B. Customize the image metadata schema and add a new Multi Value Text field for
the SKU number
C. Customize the Assets Admin Search rail to include a Multi Value Property
Predicate and configure the property name to the SKU number
D. Customize the image metadata schema and add a new Single Line Text field for
the SKU number
Correct Answer: B,C
QUESTION 3 A developer created a custom metadata profile and assigned default values to
some fields. The developer
applied this custom profile to a folder in the DAM that already uses a different
metadata profile. When viewing
the metadata properties of the existing assets in a subfolder, the developer
noticed that the custom metadata profile was not applied to these assets.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The contents are cached and clearing the browser cache should resolve this
issue.
B. The new metadata profile will only be applied to new assets that will be
added to the folder later.
C. The custom metadata profile has some invalid field values and is preventing
it from being applied to a folder.
D. The new metadata profile will only be applied to assets that are direct
children of the folder.
Exam Title: Java SE 11 Programmer II
Exam Number: 1Z0-816
Exam Price: Rs.22,584 More on exam pricing
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 180 Minutes
Number of Questions: 80
Passing Score: 63%
Validated Against: This exam has been validated against Java 11
Associated Certification Paths Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each
certification title below to view full requirements.
Oracle Certified Professional: Java SE 11 Developer
Oracle Certified Professional: Java SE 11 Developer (Upgrade from OCA Java 7 &
8)
Take Recommended Training Courses
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional): Java SE: Programming II
Java Programming Learning Subscription
Core Java Learning Subscription
Unlimited Product Learning Subscription
Additional Preparation and Information A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs
and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.
Java SE 11 Certification Overview and Sample Questions
Java Fundamentals Create and use final classes
Create and use inner, nested and anonymous classes
Create and use enumerations
Java Interfaces Create and use interfaces with default methods
Create and use interfaces with private methods
Functional Interface and Lambda Expressions Define and write functional interfaces
Create and use lambda expressions including statement lambdas, local-variable
for lambda parameters
Built-in Functional Interfaces Use interfaces from the java.util.function package
Use core functional interfaces including Predicate, Consumer, Function and
Supplier
Use primitive and binary variations of base interfaces of java.util.function
package
Migration to a Modular Application Migrate the application developed using a Java version prior to SE 9 to SE
11 including top-down and bottom-up migration, splitting a Java SE 8 application
into modules for migration
Use jdeps to determine dependencies and identify ways to address the cyclic
dependencies
Concurrency Create worker threads using Runnable, Callable and use an ExecutorService to
concurrently execute tasks
Use java.util.concurrent collections and classes including CyclicBarrier and
CopyOnWriteArrayList
Write thread-safe code
Identify threading problems such as deadlocks and livelocks
I/O (Fundamentals and NIO2) Read data from and write console and file data using I/O Streams
Use I/O Streams to read and write files
Read and write objects by using serialization
Use the Path interface to operate on file and directory paths
Use the Files class to check, delete, copy or move a file or directory
Use the Stream API with Files
Database Applications with JDBC Connect to databases using JDBC URLs and DriverManager
Use PreparedStatement to perform CRUD operations
Use PreparedStatement and CallableStatement APIs to perform database operations
Annotations Describe the purpose of annotations and typical usage patterns
Apply annotations to classes and methods
Describe commonly used annotations in the JDK
Declare custom annotations
Exception Handling and Assertions Use the try-with-resources construct
Create and use custom exception classes
Test invariants by using assertions
Generics and Collections Use wrapper classes, autoboxing and autounboxing
Create and use generic classes, methods with diamond notation and wildcards
Describe the Collections Framework and use key collection interfaces
Use Comparator and Comparable interfaces
Create and use convenience methods for collections
Java Stream API Describe the Stream interface and pipelines
Use lambda expressions and method references
Lambda Operations on Streams Extract stream data using map, peek and flatMap methods
Search stream data using search findFirst, findAny, anyMatch, allMatch and
noneMatch methods
Use the Optional class
Perform calculations using count, max, min, average and sum stream operations
Sort a collection using lambda expressions
Use Collectors with streams, including the groupingBy and partitioningBy
operations
Services in a Modular Application Describe the components of Services including directives
Design a service type, load services using ServiceLoader, check for dependencies
of the services including consumer and provider modules
Parallel Streams Develop code that uses parallel streams
Implement decomposition and reduction with streams
Secure Coding in Java SE Application Prevent Denial of Service in Java applications
Secure confidential information in Java application
Implement Data integrity guidelines- injections and inclusion and input
validation
Prevent external attack of the code by limiting Accessibility and Extensibility,
properly handling input validation, and mutability
Securely constructing sensitive objects
Secure Serialization and Deserialization
Localization Use the Locale class
Use resource bundles
Format messages, dates, and numbers with Java
QUESTION 1 Given the code fragment:
Path currentFile = Paths.get(“/scratch/exam/temp.txt”);
Path outputFile = Paths get(“/scratch/exam/new.txt”);
Path directory = Paths.get(“/scratch/”);
Files.copy(currentFile, outputFile);
Files.copy(outputFile, directory);
Files.delete (outputFile);
The /scratch/exam/temp.txt file exists. The /scratch/exam/new.txt and /scratch/new.txt
files do not exist.
What is the result?
A. /scratch/exam/new.txt and /scratch/new.txt are deleted.
B. The program throws a FileaAlreadyExistsException.
C. The program throws a NoSuchFileException.
D. A copy of /scratch/exam/new.txt exists in the /scratch directory and
/scratch/exam/new.txt is deleted.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which code fragment does a service use to load the service provider with a
Print interface?
A. private Print print = com.service.Provider.getInstance();
B. private java.util.ServiceLoader<Print> loader = ServiceLoader.load (Print.class);
C. private java.util.ServiceLoader<Print> loader = new java.util.ServiceLoader<>();
D. private Print print = new com.service.Provider.PrintImpl();
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Given:
var fruits = List.of(“apple”, “orange”, “banana”, “lemon”);
You want to examine the first element that contains the character n.
Which statement will accomplish this?
A. String result = fruits.stream().filter(f −> f.contains(“n”)).findAny();
B. fruits.stream().filter(f −> f.contains(“n”)).forEachOrdered(System.out::print);
C. Optional<String> result = fruits.stream().filter(f −> f.contains (“n”)).findFirst
();
D. Optional<String> result = fruits.stream().anyMatch(f −> f.contains(“n”));
Certification Provider: ASIS
Exam: ASIS - Certified Protection Professional
Duration: 2 Hours
Number of questions in the database: 767
Exam Version: Feb. 20, 2020
Exam Topics:
Topic 1: Single Topic Becoming a Certified Protection Professional (CPP)
Why Apply for the CPP?
The Certified Protection Professional (CPPⓇ) is considered the “gold standard”
certification for security management professionals and demonstrates your
knowledge and competency in seven key domains of security. Globally recognized
as the standard of excellence for security management professionals.
What's on the Exam?
The CPP exam consists of 200 scored multiple-choice questions and may contain 25
randomly distributed pre-test (unscored) questions for a total of up to 225
questions. The four hours allowed takes into consideration the review of
pre-test items.
The exam covers tasks, knowledge, and skills in seven broad domains that have
been identified by CPPs as the major areas involved in security management.
Eligibility
Nine (9) years of security experience*, at least three (3) years of which shall
have been in responsible charge* of a security function
OR
Earned a bachelor’s degree or higher from an accredited institution of higher
education and have seven (7) years of security experience*, at least three (3)
years of which shall have been in responsible charge* of a security function.
AND
Be employed full-time in a security-related role
Not have been convicted of any criminal offense that would reflect negatively on
the security profession, ASIS, or the certification program
Sign and agree to abide by the ASIS Certification Code of Conduct
Agree to abide by the policies of the ASIS Certification programs as outlined in
the Certification Handbook.
*Definitions for these terms can be found in the Certification Handbook.
Reference Material We encourage candidates to refer to the below reference materials as you
prepare for the CPP certification exam. Our item writers and reviewers use these
same materials to reference the correct answers on our exams. Remember: the ASIS
exams are experienced-based; therefore, you will need to apply your own
experience to help you answer the questions correctly. Please don’t attempt to
memorize these reference sets.
Protection of Assets (POA) POA is a comprehensive reference covering a range of technical and
managerial subjects providing the solutions necessary to meet the security
demands of the 21st century.
ASIS Standards & Guidelines ASIS Standards set forth industry-recommended best practices on specific
concerns inherent to the security industry and provide tools and processes for
implementation. Along with POA, these seven standards and guidelines make up the
CPP reference set. Standards: CSO, ORM.1, WVPI.1; Guidelines: FPSM, GSRA, IAP,
PBS.
Free download for ASIS members Standards & Guidelines CPP softcover bundle
CPP Practice Exam The CPP practice exam contains items that once appeared on the actual
certification exams but are now retired. Use the practice exam to familiarize
yourself with how exam items will appear on the current exam(s).
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Your journey to pass the ASIS-CPP
Perhaps this is your first step toward the certification, or perhaps you are
coming back for another round. We hope that you feel this exam challenges you,
teaches you, and prepares you to pass the ASIS-CPP. If this is your first study
guide, take a moment to relax. This could be the first step to a new high-paying
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great.
What should you know before studying the ASIS-CPP?
Every exam and certification has different requirements. If this is a serious
venture, make sure to read the prerequisites before preceding. Nothing is worse
than wasting months studying for an exam you can’t take or passing an exam that
won’t help you get a certification! Our easy search tools are designed to help
you find relevant information as well and search for a variety of different
exams.
What is the ASIS-CPP focused on?
The ASIS-CPP or as it’s also known, the ASIS - Certified Protection
Professional, like all tests, there is a bit of freedom on ASIS's part to exam
an array of subjects. That means knowing the majority of ASIS-CPP content is
required because they test randomly on the many subjects available. Be aware too
that experience requirements often exist because they’ve observed the average
person and what is required. You can always push past that to succeed with the
ASIS-CPP but it may take some extra work.
Remember that incredible things take time. And just like ancient monuments took
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Always check the foundation
Some certifications have requirements going back to older exams, while others
use two or more tests to help someone pass. If you find the ASIS-CPP is over
your head, that’s ok. It might make sense to see if a lower level exam will give
you some clarity.
If offered, read the exam objectives
The exam objectives are different for every single exam and usually provided by
the certification provider. These normally tell the test taker what subjects are
relevant, what they need to know, and why the exam seeks to cover these topics.
It’s important to find them out for your specific exam. This can be found on
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worry though, we have taken those objectives into account and seek to create a
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Remember that certification is quite rewarding
It can be hard to keep your focus on studying but remember that the best jobs in
the world are only a few tests away. Whether you enter Cyber Security or do
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Question: 1 Of all reported bomb threats, it is estimated that the percentage of real
threats is:
A. 2 percent
B. 10 percent
C. 15 percent
D. 20 percent
E. 22 percent
Answer: A
Question: 2 A full evacuation of a building should be ordered upon receipt of a bomb
threat when:
A. There is a reasonable suspicion that a bomb is present.
B. Any threat is received.
C. The threat is received during working hours.
D. The caller has a foreign accent.
E. None of the above.
Answer: A
Question: 3 Which of the following may be an indication of a planted bomb?
A. Loose electrical fittings
B. Tin foil
C. Fresh plaster or cement
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: D
Question: 4 If a kidnapper warns the family of the victim not to notify police, the best
course of action is to:
A. Do nothing
B. Contact a reliable detective agency.
C. Notify the police anyway.
D. Notify the telephone company.
E. None of the above.
Answer: C
Question: 5 The ZYX Corporation is in the process of relocating its facilities after
several years of planning. The
president, who is well aware of the necessity for emergency planning, directs
you as the security
manager to draw up necessary plans to cope with natural disasters. Which of the
following is not a
valid assumption to be considered?
A. Some plants or facilities just are not vulnerable to natural disasters and
therefore should not be involved in the planning.
B. Most disasters considered likely will arrive with very little warning.
C. Each plant and facility must be evaluated in terms of disaster, most likely
to occur as well as the facility's capacity to cope with and minimize the
effects of the disaster.
D. In assessing the vulnerability of individual plants and other facilities,
environmental, indigenous, and economic factors must be considered.
E. Most disasters considered likely will have a rapid development and have a
potential for substantial destruction.
Answer: A
Question: 6 A natural hazard that poses a threat to many areas of this country is a
hurricane. As soon as the
weather forecaster determines a particular section of the coast will feel the
full effects of a
hurricane, he issues a hurricane warning. Such a warning specifies which of the
following?
A. Coastal areas where the eye of the storm will pass
B. Coastal areas where winds of 74 mph or higher are expected
C. Coastal areas where inhabitants should listen closely for further advisories
and be ready to take precautionary actions
D. The fact that there are definite indications a hurricane is forming and a
name to the storm is given
E. Coastal areas where winds are 100 mph or higher are expected
Answer: B
Question: 7
One natural disaster that seems to occur with increasing frequency is the
tornado. It is necessary for
the security manager to be knowledgeable regarding all aspects of tornados so
that adequate
disaster plans can be formulated. Which of the following statements is
incorrect?
A. Tornados are violent local storms with whirling winds of tremendous speed
that can reach 200-400 mph.
B. The individual tornado appears as a rotating, funnel-shaped cloud that
extends toward the ground from the base of a thundercloud.
C. The tornado spins like a top, may sound like the roaring of an airplane or
locomotive, and varies from gray to black in color.
D. Tornados only occur in the middle plains, southeastern states, and some
Middle Atlantic States.
E. The width of a tornado path ranges generally from 200 yards to one mile.
Answer: D
Question: 8 You are the security manager of the ZYW Corporation located in Phoenix,
Arizona. A report is
received from the national weather service that a tornado warning has been
issued. Which of the
following would be the correct action to take?
A. Institute appropriate emergency notification procedures as this means that a
tornado has actually been sighted in the area or is indicated by radar.
B. Alert top management as this indicates tornados are expected to develop.
C. Request the weather service to keep you advised on a 15minute basis.
D. Have all windows in the facility closed and be alert to additional weather
reports.
E. Do nothing because tornados are usually not spotted in Arizona and the report
is probably in error.
Answer: A
Question: 9 As the security manager of a large corporation located in Southern
California, you are charged with
formulating a disaster plan to handle emergencies that arise as a result of
earthquakes. Which of the
following warnings to be issued to employees should not be included in the plan?
A. If employees are outside, proceed to the nearest building and head for the
basement promptly.
B. If employees are indoors at the time of shaking, they should stay there.
C. If inside, take cover under sturdy furniture.
D. If inside, stay near the center of the building.
E. If inside, stay away from glass windows and doors.
Answer: A
Question: 10 Earthquakes constitute a definite concern to the emergency management
responsibilities of security
managers in certain areas of our country. Accordingly, it is incumbent upon
security professionals to
have a clear understanding of the basic facts concerning earthquakes. Which of
the following is an
incorrect statement?
A. Earthquakes are unpredictable and strike without warning.
B. Earthquakes may last from a few seconds to as long as five minutes.
C. The actual movement of the ground in an earthquake is usually the direct
cause of injury or death.
D. Earthquakes may also trigger landslides and generate tidal waves.
E. Most casualties during an earthquake result from falling material.
Qlik Sense System Administrator Certification The Qlik Sense System Administrator Certification Exam measures your ability
to identify requirements for environments, install and set up Qlik Sense
Enterprise, manage environments, and monitor and troubleshoot. This exam has 50
multiple-choice questions to answer in 2 hours.
Prerequisites At least 6 months experience as an administrator of a Microsoft Windows
Server-based environment
Experience working with Qlik Sense sites and the Qlik Management Console, to
provide data and application governance, library maintenance, as well as user
and application security
Experience managing the policies and options that run the Qlik Sense servers and
apps
Experience creating rules and managing the visualization streams
Knowledge of networking and Active Directory configuration, proxies,
intermediate web servers, load balancers, etc.
Familiarity with Windows tools and logs created (e.g., Event Viewer, Services
Console, DCOM Console, Windows Registry)
Experience using NSLookUp, Telnet, Ping, NetStat, Fiddler, and other browser
tools to troubleshoot connectivity, interoperability, configuration,
performance, etc.
Recommended Preparation Resources Instructor-Led Training: Deploy and Administer Qlik Sense
Qlik Continuous Classroom: System Administrator
Qlik Sense Certification Exam Study Guide
FREE Qlik Sense System Administrator Certification Practice Questions
Exam Topics
Plan Installation (20% of the exam) Given a scenario, recommend environment architecture
Given a scenario, determine appropriate security strategies
Install System (22% of the exam) Configure initial environment for Qlik Sense access
Configure multi-node deployment
Configure proxy and virtual proxies
Manage Content (34% of the exam) Configure tasks based on business and system needs
Apply procedural concepts to organize external content (Content Library and
Extensions)
Apply steps to manage streams and apps
Apply steps to manage privileges in the Qlik Sense deployment
Configure user roles and properties
Monitor and Maintain (24% of the exam)
Investigate Qlik Sense errors and issues
Given a scenario, demonstrate an understanding of how to monitor system
performance
Apply the steps to perform a backup and restore
Apply the steps to perform upgrade(s)
QUESTION 1 A company decides to move servers from on premise to a cloud. A system
administrator performs a backup,
restore, and brings the server online. When users open the app on the hub, they
get an error message indicating the app could not be found.
The system administrator confirms that apps are present in the required location
and NO changes have been made.
What could be causing the issue?
A. Shared persistence path is NOT reachable
B. Synchronized persistence is in place
C. The app has been moved from one stream to another
D. The security rules were broken when the servers were migrated
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 A single-node Qlik Sense environment has all services up and running. Users
report apps and sheets are slow to open.
A system administrator works remotely and does NOT have access to the shared
file system for the
environment. The system administrator’s computer can make requests to the Qlik
Sense Repository Service.
Due to the system performance issues, a system administrator can NOT run any new
reloads. The system
administrator receives a warning email about high RAM usage on the server.
Which step should the system administrator take to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Request the “http://<server.domain.com>/engine/performancecheck/” API
B. Access the server remotely and inspect the logs in %ProgramData%\Qlik\Sense\Log\Engine
C. Request the “https://<server.domain.com>/engine/healthcheck/” API
D. Request the “https://<server.domain.com>/qmc/audit” API
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 A system administrator creates a custom property called “dept” and assigns
it to users and apps. The value of
the custom property are department names such as Accounting, Finance, and IT.
Users with the same value
for “dept” can see and edit each other’s apps. Users with different values for
the property should NOT see each other’s apps.
Which security rule should the administrator use to meet this requirement?
A. Resource: App_*, Stream_*
Conditions: user.@dept=app.@dept
B. Resource: App_*
Conditions: user.@dept=resource.id
C. Resource: App_*
Conditions: user.@dept=resource.@dept
D. Resource: App_*
Conditions: user.@dept=resource.description
Exam ID HPE6-A71
Exam type Proctored
Exam duration 1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length 60 questions
Passing score 65%
Delivery languages Japanese, English, Latin American Spanish
Supporting resources These recommended resources help you prepare for the exam:
Implementing Aruba Mobility, Rev. 19.21
Additional study materials
Exam description This exam tests your skills with the WLAN design, deployment, and
troubleshooting of Aruba Mobile First Network Solutions in complex highly
available campus and branch environments. It also tests your ability to
configure specialized applications, management, and security requirements for a
WLAN such as UCC Voice and advanced security features.
Ideal candidate for this exam
Typical candidates for this exam are networking IT professionals with a minimum
of two years of advanced-level implementation experience with Aruba WLAN
solutions and a minimum of three years of experience with wired LAN
infrastructure and switching and routing technologies.
Exam contents
This exam has 60 questions.
Advice to help you take this exam
Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you
take the exam.
Use HPE Press study guides and additional reference materials; study guides,
practice tests, and HPE books.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an
expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events,
supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course or study materials alone, does not ensure
you will pass the exam.
Objectives This exam validates that you can:
Percentage of Exam Sections/Objectives
20% Integrate and implement Aruba Mobile First architecture components and
explain their uses. Integrate components of the Aruba Mobile First Architecture.
Differentiate between standalone mode and Master Controller Mode (MCM) features
and recommend use cases.
Differentiate the use of packet forwarding modes (tunnel, decrypt-tunnel,
split-tunnel, and bridge).
Differentiate between redundancy methods, and describe the benefits of L2 and L3
clustering.
Explain Remote Access architectures and how to integrate the architectures.
Describe and differentiate advanced licensing features.
20% Configure and validate Aruba WLAN secure employee and guest solutions. • Configure Remote Access with Aruba Solutions such as RAP and VIA.
• Configure and deploy redundant controller solutions based upon a given design.
• Configure a Mesh WLAN.
38% Implement advanced services and security. • Enable multicast DNS features to support discovery across VLAN boundaries.
• Configure role derivation, and explain and implement advanced role features.
• Configure an AAA server profile for a user or administrative access.
• Implement Mobility Infrastructure hardening features.
• Explain Clarity features and functions.
• Implement Voice WLAN based upon a given design.
• Configure primary zones and data zones to support MultiZone AP.
• Implement mobility (roaming) in an Aruba wireless environment.
• Implement tunneled node to secure ArubaOS switches.
10% Manage and monitor Aruba solutions. • Use AirWave to monitor an Aruba Mobility Master and Mobility Controller.
• Perform maintenance upgrades and operational maintenance.
12% Troubleshoot Aruba WLAN solutions. • Troubleshoot controller communication.
• Troubleshoot the WLAN.
• Troubleshoot Remote Access.
• Troubleshoot issues related to services and security.
• Troubleshoot role-based access, per-port based security and Airmatch.
QUESTION 1 An administrator deploys an AP at a branch office. The branch office has a
private WAN circuit that provides
connectivity to a corporate office controller. An Ethernet port on the AP is
connected to a network storage
device that contains sensitive information. The administrator is concerned about
sending this traffic in cleartext across the private WAN circuit.
What can the administrator do to prevent this problem?
A. Enable IPSec encryption on the AP's wired ports.
B. Convert the campus AP into a RAP.
C. Redirect the wired port traffic to an AP-to-controller GRE tunnel.
D. Enable AP encryption for wired ports.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 An administrator needs to modify a VAP used for a branch office RAP. The
VAP's operating mode is currently
defined as backup and uses tunnel mode forwarding. The administrator wants to
implement split-tunnel forwarding mode in the VAP.
Which WLAN operating mode must the administrator define for the VAP before the
tunnel forwarding mode can be changed to split-tunnel?
A. Trusted
B. Always
C. Persistent
D. Standard
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 An administrator creates service-based policies for AirGroup on the Mobility
Master (MM). The administrator can define location-based policy limits based on
which information?
A. controller names, controller groups, and controller Fully Qualified Domain
Names (FQDNs)
B. AP names, AP groups, controller names, and controller groups
C. AP Fully Qualified Location Names (FQLNs) and controller Fully Qualified
Domain Names (FQDNs)
D. AP names, AP groups, and AP Fully Qualified Location Names (FQLNs)
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 An administrator supports a RAP at a branch office. A user's device that is
attached to the Ethernet port is assigned an 802.1X AAA policy and is configured
for tunneled node.
How is the user's traffic transmitted to the corporate office?
A. It is not encapsulated by GRE and not protected with IPSec.
B. It is encapsulated by GRE and protected with IPSec.
C. It is not encapsulated by GRE but is protected with IPSec.
D. It is encapsulated by GRE and not protected with IPSec.
Description MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect - Level 1A MuleSoft Certified Platform
Architect should be able to define and be responsible for an organization’s
Anypoint Platform strategy. The MCPA – Level 1 exam validates that an architect
has the required knowledge and skills to direct the emergence of an effective
application network out of individual integration solutions following API-led
connectivity across an organization using Anypoint Platform. S/he should be able
to:
Optimize and shape the Anypoint Platform deployment in the specific
organizational context, working with business, infrastructure, InfoSec, and
other teams.
Define how Anypoint Platform is used in conjunction with other tools and
applications in the organization.
Define the usage of Anypoint Platform and the corresponding organizational and
process changes needed to help the Platform be sustainable.
Provide guidance and drive creation of standards, reusable assets, and
automation required for scale and multi-LOB adoption.
A downloadable data sheet for the exam can be found here. Format Format: Multiple-choice, closed book, proctored online or in a
testing center
Length: 58 questions
Duration: 120 minutes (2 hours)
Pass score: 70%
Language: English
The exam can be taken a maximum of 5 times, with a 24 hour wait between each
attempt.
Cost $375 The exam can be purchased with one of the following. Each includes a
coupon for one free retake.
1.5 Flexible Training Credits (FTC) A voucher obtained by attending the instructor-led Anypoint Platform
Architecture: Application Networks course
Additional retakes (attempts 3 to 5) are $250 or 1 FTC and do not come with a
free retake.
Validity
The certification expires two years from the date of passing.
Preparation
The best preparation for the exam is to take the instructor-led Anypoint
Platform Architecture: Application Networks course. Candidates should be
familiar with all of the content in the course and be able to apply the
concepts.
The following resources are available to assist in a candidate’s preparation:
Instructor-led training: Anypoint Platform Architecture: Application Networks
Recommended as the most effective and efficient method of preparation 3-day
class
Private and public classes available
Onsite and online classes available
Includes a certification voucher for this exam
Practice quiz 20+ multiple-choice questions
Comparable difficulty to the proctored exam
Topics The exam validates that the candidate can perform the following tasks.
Explaining Application Network Basics Explain MuleSoft’s proposal for closing the IT delivery gap
Describe the role and characteristics of the "modern API"
Define and describe the benefits of API-led connectivity and application
networks
Define outcome-based delivery (OBD)
Correctly use the terms API, API implementation, API client, API consumer, and
API invocation
Describe the capabilities and high-level components of Anypoint Platform
ARC:NET Module 1
ARC:NET Module 2
Establishing Organizational and Platform Foundations Describe the purpose and roles of a C4E
Identify KPIs to measure the success of a C4E
Given specific organizational requirements, preferences, and constraints,
identify all suitable Anypoint Platform deployment options
Select Anypoint Platform identity management vs client management for the
correct purpose
ARC:NET Module 2
ARC:NET Module 3
Designing APIs and API Interactions Break down functional requirements into business-aligned APIs with effective
granularity
Given a set of APIs and specific preferences and organizational characteristics,
recommend the use of an Enterprise Data Model or Bounded Context Data Models
Identify changes to an API that would require or not require a major version
increment
When asynchronous execution of API invocations is needed, select when to
appropriately use polling or callbacks
Identify idempotent HTTP methods and HTTP-native support for optimistic
concurrency
Describe the creation and publication of reusable API-related assets using RAML
and Anypoint Platform components
ARC:NET Module 4
ARC:NET Module 6
Bounded Context
Why You Should Avoid a CDM
Canonical Data Models & Microservices
HTTP/1.1: Semantics and Content
HTTP/1.1: Caching
Semantic Versioning 2.0.0
Semantic versioning of REST APIs?
Following API-Led Connectivity
Identify appropriate APIs to implement a business process and assign them to
layers of API-led connectivity
Assign APIs to layers according to ownership, functional focus, and rate of
change
Given specific requirements and organizational characteristics, recommend the
most appropriate approach relating the API data model of System APIs to that of
their backend system
Governing APIs on Anypoint Platform Given specific preferences and constraints, select API policy enforcement
with or without API proxies
Select appropriate API policies to enforce non-functional constraints on API
invocations
Given an API policy with specific characteristics, identify any change required
in the corresponding RAML definition
Given a layer of API-led connectivity, identify API policies that are typically
applied to that layer and the scenarios needing custom policies
Identify which types of APIs and other remote interfaces are or are not amenable
to management by API Manager
ARC:NET Module 5
Controlling Access to APIs
Describe when and how to pass client ID and secret to an API Describe when and
how to pass client ID and secret to an API Describe when and how to pass client
ID and secret to an API
Explain how to register an API client for access to an API version
ARC:NET Module 5
Delivering APIs Describe the automation capabilities of Anypoint Platform for DevOps, CI/CD,
and testing
Compare unit and integration tests and specify where MUnit is best employed
Explain how to use autodiscovery to link an API implementation to an API
instance managed with API Manager
Specify how and when to promote APIs with API Manager
Identify when redeployment of API implementations is necessary
Deploying Mule Applications to CloudHub
Describe the fundamentals of deployments, networking, and routing on CloudHub
Select CloudHub worker sizes and configuration as appropriate
Describe the scenarios for which Object Store should be used with CloudHub
ARC:NET Module 7
Architecting Performant and Resilient APIs Identify the factors involved in scaling API performance
Identify the differences between the CloudHub Shared and Dedicated Load
Balancers
Identify single points of failure in typical CloudHub usage
Select strategies that help API clients guard against failures in API
invocations
ARC:NET Module 7
ARC:NET Module 9
HYSTRIX Defend Your App
Let’s talk about Resilience
Eclipse MicroProfile Fault Tolerance
Monitoring and Analyzing Application Networks Identify the components of Anypoint Platform that generate data for
monitoring and alerting
Describe the metrics collected by Anypoint Platform on the level of API
invocations
Describe and select between the options for performing API analytics within and
outside of Anypoint Platform
Specify alerts to define for key metrics of API invocations for all layers of
API-led connectivity
Specify alerts to define for API implementations
ARC:NET Module 10
Delivery methods
The exam is administered via the Kryterion Webassessor testing platform. The
exam can be taken in-person at a testing center or online using a web camera.
In-person at a Kryterion Testing Center:
Over 1000 locations worldwide
Onsite instructions
Test-taker guide
Online using the Kryterion Webassessor testing platform:
Requires a webcam - a laptop webcam can be used, an external camera is not
required
Requires internet connectivity with 1 Mbps upload, 1 Mbps download, jitter
<50ms, ping <200ms
Check your internet speed and reliability
Note: Some candidates are expelled from the exam for an unstable connection even
after checking reliability with the tool. If you think your connection could
potentially be unreliable, we strongly recommend scheduling your exam at a test
center.
Online instructions
Test-taker guide
Registration To register for the exam:
Go to Webassessor.
Create a user profile.
Log in.
Select Register for an Exam.
Select the MuleSoft Certified Platform Architect – Level 1 exam.
Select either the Online Proctoring Option or the Kryterion Test Center option.
On the payment screen, select to pay by credit card or enter a voucher/coupon
code.
Note: A fee applies if an exam is cancelled or rescheduled within 72 hours of
its scheduled time, even if the exam was purchased with a voucher. QUESTION 1
What API policy would LEAST likely be applied to a Process API?
A. Custom circuit breaker
B. Client ID enforcement
C. Rate limiting
D. JSON threat protection
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 What is a key performance indicator (KPI) that measures the success of a
typical C4E that is immediately apparent in responses from the Anypoint Platform
APIs?
A. The number of production outage incidents reported in the last 24 hours
B. The number of API implementations that have a publicly accessible HTTP
endpoint and are being managed by Anypoint Platform
C. The fraction of API implementations deployed manually relative to those
deployed using a CI/CD tool
D. The number of API specifications in RAML or OAS format published to Anypoint
Exchange
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 An organization is implementing a Quote of the Day API that caches today's
quote.
What scenario can use the CloudHub Object Store via the Object Store connector
to persist the cache's state?
A. When there are three CloudHub deployments of the API implementation to three
separate CloudHub regions that must share the cache state.
B. When there are two CloudHub deployments of the API implementation by two
Anypoint Platform business groups to the same CloudHub region that must share
the cache state.
C. When there is one deployment of the API implementation to CloudHub and
another deployment to a customer-hosted Mule runtime that must share the cache
state.
D. When there is one CloudHub deployment of the API implementation to three
CloudHub workers that must share the cache state.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 What condition requires using a CloudHub Dedicated Load Balancer?
A. When cross-region load balancing is required between separate deployments of
the same Mule application
B. When custom DNS names are required for API implementations deployed to
customer-hosted Mule runtimes
C. When API invocations across multiple CloudHub workers must be load balanced
D. When server-side load-balanced TLS mutual authentication is required between
API implementations and API clients
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 What do the API invocation metrics provided by Anypoint Platform provide?
A. ROI metrics from APIs that can be directly shared with business users
B. Measurements of the effectiveness of the application network based on the
level of reuse
C. Data on past API invocations to help identify anomalies and usage patterns
across various APIs
D. Proactive identification of likely future policy violations that exceed a
given threat threshold
Avaya Aura® Call Center Elite manages the collection, queuing, assignment and
delivery of voice work items to appropriately skilled agents in the contact
center. Intelligent routing and resource selection features, determines if
customers should be served by the least busy agent, the first available agent,
or the agent with skills that best match their needs. Call Center Elite uses the
phantom call capabilities of Avaya Aura® Communication Manager to deliver work
items to the contact center agents which supports inbound and outbound contacts.
The ACIS - Avaya Aura® Call Center Elite credential validates the candidate has
achieved an enhanced level of proficiency required to integrate and implement
core and complex products of the Avaya Aura® Call Center Elite.
To earn the ACIS - Avaya Aura®: Call Center Elite, the candidate must pass
7392X, Avaya Aura® Call Center Elite Exam
The recommended training for the credential requirements is in the learning map
below.
QUESTION 1 Which three items are needed to properly configure a hunt group in an Expert
Agent Selection (EAS) enabled call center? (Choose three.)
A. the Class of Restriction (COR)
B. the group extension
C. the trunk group number
D. the call distribution method
E. the Vector Directory Number (VDN)
Correct Answer: A,B,D
QUESTION 2 When creating a vector directory number, or VDN, which four options must be
configured to ensure that the call center works correctly? (Choose four.)
A. Hunt Group
B. Vector
C. Extension
D. Skill Level
E. Agent Login
F. Measured Format
Correct Answer: A,B,D,E
QUESTION 3 To ensure that announcements always start at the beginning when played as
part of a vector, which action must be taken?
A. Use Analog announcements only
B. Set the queue field to Yes
C. Use external announcements
D. Create forced announcements
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 A customer wants the ability to track the call types for Automatic Call
Distribution (ACD) calls answered by agents. These call types will be defined by
the customer.
Which call center feature can the customer use to track their defined call
types?
A. Redirection on No Answer (RONA)
B. Call Work Codes (CWC)
C. Least Occupied Agent (LOA)
D. Feature Access Codes (FAC)
E. Multiple Call Handling (MCH)
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 A supervisor with console permission can enter an agent’s login ID, and add
or remove an agent’s skill via
Feature Access Code (FAC). Agents can also dial FAC to add or remove a skill.
Which statement is true about the configuration of this feature?
A. The supervisors class of services (COS) must have the field “Add/Remove Agent
Skills” set to y.
B. The agent’s COS must have the field “Add/Remove Agent Skills” set to y.
C. The supervisor’s class of restriction (COR) must have the field “Can Force a
Work State Change” set to y.
D. The supervisors COS must have the field “Can Force a Work State Change” set
to y.
E. The supervisors COR must have the field “Add/Remove Agent Skills” set to y.
About the Salesforce Platform App Builder Credential The Salesforce Platform App Builder credential is designed for individuals
who would like to demonstrate their skills and knowledge in designing, building,
and deploying custom applications using the declarative customization
capabilities of the Lightning Platform. The candidate can create, manage, and
update data models, application security, business logic, and process
automation.
Here are some examples of the concepts you should understand to pass the exam:
How to design the data model, user interface, business logic, and security for
custom applications
The Salesforce Platform App Builder credential is intended for an individual who
has experience developing custom applications on the Lightning Platform,
including practical application of the skills and concepts noted in the exam
objectives below.
The Salesforce Platform App Builder generally has 6 months to 1 year of
experience building applications on the Lightning Platform and/or on a similar
technology platform.
The Salesforce Platform App Builder candidate has the experience, skills, and
knowledge outlined below:
Familiarity with the capabilities of the Lightning Platform
Awareness of Salesforce license types and related considerations
Ability to design applications to support business processes and reporting
requirements
Familiarity with the social and mobile capabilities of the platform; accustomed
to using and optimizing business applications on a mobile device
Familiarity with the Salesforce development environments and the options
available to deploy applications and manage changes on the Lightning Platform
Study of the resources listed in this exam guide and the additional required
study materials provided by Salesforce
A candidate for this exam is not expected to be able to administer Sales Cloud
or Service Cloud, have programmatic development experience (Apex, Visualforce,
etc.), design custom interfaces using Visualforce, or design custom Lightning
components using Apex or JavaScript.
Purpose of this Exam Guide
This exam guide is designed to help you evaluate if you are ready to
successfully complete the Salesforce Platform App Builder exam. This guide
provides information about the target audience for the certification exam,
recommended training and documentation, and a complete list of exam
objectives—all with the intent of helping you achieve a passing score.
Salesforce highly recommends a combination of on-the-job experience, course
attendance, and self-study to maximize your chances of passing the exam.
About the Exam
Read on for details about the Salesforce Platform App Builder exam.
Registration fee: USD 200, plus applicable taxes as required per local law
Retake fee: USD 100, plus applicable taxes as required per local law
Delivery options: Proctored exam delivered onsite at a testing center or in an
online proctored environment. Click here for information on scheduling an exam.
References: No hard-copy or online materials may be referenced during the exam.
As preparation for this exam, we recommend a combination of hands-on experience,
training course completion, Trailhead trails, and self-study in the areas listed
in the Exam Outline section of this exam guide.
The self-study materials recommended for this exam include:
Trailmix: Prepare for Your Salesforce Platform App Builder Credential
Superbadge: Security Specialist
Superbadge: Process Automation Specialist
Superbadge: App Customization Specialist
To enroll in instructor-led courses and launch online training from your
Salesforce application, click the Help & Training link in the upper right corner
of the screen (requires login) and search for the desired courses. Non-Salesforce
customers can register for instructor-led courses here.
Instructor-Led Training recommended for this exam:
Declarative Development for Platform App Builders in Lightning Experience (DEX
403)
Certification Preparation for Platform App Builder (CRT 402)
To review online Documentation, Tip Sheets, and User Guides, search for the
topics listed in the Exam Outline section of this guide and study the
information related to those topics. Documentation, Tip Sheets, and User Guides
can also be accessed through Help & Training.
Exam Outline
The Salesforce Platform App Builder exam measures a candidate’s knowledge and
skills related to the following objectives. A candidate should have hands-on
experience developing custom applications on the Lightning Platform and have
demonstrated the application of each of the features/functions below.
Salesforce Fundamentals: 8%
Describe the capabilities of the core CRM objects in the Salesforce schema.
Given a scenario, identify the boundaries of declarative customization and the
use cases for programmatic customization.
Identify common scenarios for extending an org using the AppExchange.
Data Modeling and Management: 20% Given a scenario, determine the appropriate data model.
Describe the capabilities of the various relationship types and the implications
of each on record access, user interface, and reporting.
Identify the considerations when changing a field's type.
Given a set of requirements, identify the considerations and select the
appropriate field type.
Describe the capabilities and considerations of the schema builder.
Describe the options and considerations when importing and exporting data.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for external objects.
Security: 10%
Describe the features and capabilities available to restrict and extend object,
record, and field access.
Given a set of business requirements, determine the appropriate sharing
solution.
Business Logic and Process Automation: 27% Describe the capabilities of and use cases for record types.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for formula fields.
Describe the capabilities of, use cases for, and implications of roll-up summary
fields.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for validation rules.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for approval processes.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for workflow, Flow, and Process
Builder.
Given a set of business requirements, recommend a solution to automate business
processes.
Describe the ramifications of field updates and the potential for recursion.
Social: 3% Describe the capabilities of and use cases for social features.
User Interface: 14% Describe the user interface customization options.
Describe the capabilities of and use cases for custom buttons, links, and
actions.
Describe the declarative options available for incorporating Lightning
Components in an application.
Given a scenario, determine the appropriate user interface design.
Reporting: 5% Describe the features and capabilities available when creating reports,
report types, and dashboards.
Mobile: 5% Describe the declarative customization options available for the Salesforce
mobile application user interface.
Given a set of requirements, determine the appropriate global and
object-specific actions and action layouts to optimize the Salesforce mobile
application user experience.
App Development: 8%
Describe the key milestones and considerations when managing the application
lifecycle.
Describe the differences between and considerations when using the various types
of sandboxes.
Describe the capabilities of and considerations when using change sets.
Describe the use cases of and considerations when using unmanaged packages.
Given a scenario, determine the appropriate deployment plan.
Maintaining Your Salesforce Certification One of the benefits of holding a Salesforce credential is always being
up-to-date on new product releases (updates). As such, you will be required to
complete the Platform App Builder certification maintenance modules on Trailhead
three times a year.
Don’t let your hard-earned credential expire! If you do not complete all
maintenance requirements by the due date, your credential will expire.
Bookmark these useful resources for maintaining your credentials:
Overall Maintenance Requirements
Maintenance Exam Due Dates
Verify Your Certification Status
Certification Expiration Details
QUESTION 1 Universal Containers manages internal projects by department using a custom
object called Projects. Only
employees in the project’s respective department should have view access to all
of the department’s project
records. If an employee changes job roles and moves to another department, the
employee should no longer
have access to the projects within their former department.
Which two options will meet these requirements assuming the organization-wide
default for Projects is set to Private? (Choose two.)
A. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project’s department that
grants access to users by profiles.
B. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project’s department that
grants access to users by permission sets.
C. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project’s department that
grants access to users by roles.
D. Create a criteria-based sharing rule using the Project’s department that
grants access to users by public groups.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 2 Universal Containers has a customer base where many customers have the same
or similar company names.
Which functionality should be configured to improve an end user’s search
experience? (Choose two.)
A. Update the account search layouts search filter fields.
B. Update the account search layouts accounts tab columns displayed.
C. Update the account search layouts search results columns displayed.
D. Update the account search layouts list view filter settings.
Correct Answer: B,C
QUESTION 3 An app builder creates an Account validation rule on the Industry field that
will throw an error if the length of
the field is longer than 6 characters. Another app builder creates a workflow
with a field update that sets the
Industry field to Technology whenever the Billing City field is set to San
Francisco.
What will happen the next time a sales person saves an Account with a Billing
City of San Francisco?
A. The record will save and the Industry field will change to Technology.
B. The record will not save and no error message will be displayed.
C. The record will not save the validation rule’s error message will be
displayed.
D. The record will save but the Industry field will not change to Territory.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 What is a true statement when deleting a dashboard?
A. Deleting a dashboard also deletes the components within it. It does not
delete the custom reports used by the components.
B. Deleting a dashboard does not move the dashboard to the Recycle Bin and
therefore the dashboard cannot be recovered.
C. Deleting a dashboard also deletes the components within it as well as the
custom reports used by the components.
D. Deleting a dashboard requires a user to first edit the components to remove
the underlying reports.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 A junction object has two Master-Detail relationships, a primary and a
secondary master object.
What happens to a junction object record when both associated master records are
deleted?
A. The junction object record is permanently deleted and can’t be restored.
B. The delete operation cannot be performed on both master records.
C. The delete operation is not allowed with Roll-up summary fields defined.
D. The junction object records is deleted and placed in the recycle bin.
