C9520-427 IBM Digital Experience 8.5 Fundamentals

Number of questions: 64
Number of questions to pass: 43
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live

Exam 427: IBM Digital Experience 8.5 Fundamentals

Exam Competencies
Exam Type: Multiple Choice

Section 1: IBM WebSphere Portal 48%
Understand IBM WebSphere Portal offerings
Identify the prerequisites
Understand the unsupported/deprecated features
Understand IBM WebSphere Portal version coexistence
Discuss architecture concepts
Understand integration with other products
Understand Performance considerations
Install IBM Installation Manager
Install IBM WebSphere Application Server
Install IBM WebSphere Portal
Install upgrades/fixes
Configure IBM WebSphere Portal for databases
Set up security
Understand the ability to troubleshoot simple issues
Understand responsive design
Discuss the usage of WebDAV within IBM WebSphere Portal
Understand the high-level migration paths
Enable Single Sign-On
Understand Web Application Bridge use case
Understand Unified Task List portlet
Understand the capabilities of Portal Search
Describe managed pages
Understand the Theme Analyzer
Deploy Portal profiles and communities
Understand Virtual Portal use cases and best practices
Understand the concepts of a cluster
Understand deployment strategies using ReleaseBuilder
Work with community pages
Understand integration with analytics tools
Understand IBM Worklight Integration with IBM WebSphere Portal

Section 2: IBM Web Content Manager 25%
Understand content creation
Create a new page
Edit current page
Understand the content template catalog
Understand Syndication basics
Understand WebDAV basics
Work with Digital Data Connector
Work with Web Content Viewer portlets
Understand workflows
Understand Categorization
Understand Tagging
Enable multilingual sites with MLS
Understand troubleshooting options for content issues with the WCM Tools portlet

Section 3: IBM Web Experience Factory 14%
Understand the concept of builders
Understand visual designer
Understand model wizards
Import/Export IBM Web Experience Factory Archives
Understand how WEF can connect to a database
Debug a Web Experience Factory application
Understand manual and automated deployment
Understand creation of secure web apps with Web Experience Factory
Understand mobile enablement of an application

Section 4: IBM Forms 6%
Identify pre-requisites
Understand the concept of Extension points (IFX, API, Servlets, Portlets)
Understand Install Forms Server
Understand integration possibilities

Section 5: IBM Forms Experience Builder 6%
Understand FEB Design Functions
Identify pre-requisites
Understand integration and extension points (Understand the concept of REST API, Services, Custom Transports, JavaScript)
Understand Manage/Use Tab Function (duplicate/Deploy/History/View Response)
This exam has an Assessment Exam option: A9520-427 Assessment: IBM Digital Experience 8.5 Fundamentals

Assessment exams are web-based exams that provides you, at a cheaper costs, the ability to check your skills before taking the certification exam.

This assessment exam is available in: English
Passing the exam does not award you a certification, and it is only used to help you assess if you are ready or not to take the certification exam.

You can register for it at Pearson VUE and it will provide you a score report, showing you how you did in each section.

IBM Collaboration Solutions highly recommends using a variety of resources to prepare for certification exams. During your preparation, it is important that you review the exam objectives periodically to make sure that all of the material in the exam objectives is covered in your choice of preparation methods. It should be noted that there is not a one-to-one correspondence between these preparation methods and the exam.

Review the exam objectives to see the complete listing of possible topics for the exam. Use this as your checklist to determine your strengths and those areas where you will need to focus more attention in your studies and preparation. This information also includes recommend prerequisite skills and knowledge.

Actual hands-on experience is a critical component in preparing for the exam. Direct application of the skills learned cannot be substituted by any one other resource listed here. You must spend time using the product and applying the skills learned. The exam is looking to measure how well you know how to perform tasks, not how well you memorize features and functions.
Product Documentation

IBM Forms Documentation
This page provides an entry point to product information about IBM Forms. Use the links in the Table of Contents to find documentation for specific versions and editions of this product family. Generated links to developerWorks, Redbooks, and white papers are also provided when articles about the product are available. On this page, you can find entry points to sites that help you learn more about this product and other IBM products. There are also links to web sites that help you find support and stay current.

IBM Web Experience Factory 8.5 documentation
IBM Web Experience Factory creates applications with rich, interactive digital experiences for delivery on desktop browsers, smartphones, tablets, and IBM Worklight. This rapid application development tool enables developers to build custom web portlets, widgets, and applications for IBM WebSphere Portal, IBM Worklight, and IBM WebSphere Application Server environments.

Exceptional Digital Experience: IBM WebSphere Portal and IBM Web Content Manager 8.5 Documentation

Welcome to the documentation for IBM's Exceptional Digital Experience. Find information about how to install, maintain, and use: IBM Web Content Manager, IBM WebSphere Portal, and IBM WebSphere Portal Enable for z/OS.

IBM WebSphere Portal Express Documentation
This page provides an entry point to product information about WebSphere Portal Express. Use the links in the Table of Contents to find documentation for specific versions and editions of this product family. Generated links to developerWorks, Redbooks, and white papers are also provided when articles about the product are available. On this page, you can find entry points to sites that help you learn more about this product and other IBM products. There are also links to web sites that help you find support and stay current.

IBM Case Manager Documentation
This page provides an entry point to product information about Case Manager. Use the links in the Table of Contents to find documentation for specific versions and editions of this product family. Generated links to developerWorks, Redbooks, and white papers are also provided when articles about the product are available. On this page, you can find entry points to sites that help you learn more about this product and other IBM products. There are also links to web sites that help you find support and stay current.

WebSphere Application Server, Network Deployment, V8.5.5 documentation
View the latest WebSphere Application Server, Network Deployment documentation. This information applies to Version 8.5.5 and to all subsequent releases and modifications until otherwise indicated in new editions.

WebSphere Application Server V8.5 Concepts, Planning and Design Guide
IBM WebSphere Application Server is the leading software foundation for service-oriented architecture (SOA) applications and services for your enterprise. With IBM WebSphere Application Server, you can build business-critical enterprise applications and solutions, and combine them with innovative new functions. The WebSphere Application Server family includes and supports a range of products that helps you develop and serve your business applications. You can use these products to build, deploy, and manage dynamic websites and other more complex solutions productively and effectively.

Overview
PartnerWorld Code: 14012001
Replaces PW Code: Not Applicable

Status: Live
An IBM Certified Associate - Digital Experience 8.5 is an individual with entry-level knowledge and experience with IBM WebSphere Portal, IBM Web Content Manager, IBM Web Experience Factory, IBM Forms, and IBM Forms Experience Builder. This individual is knowledgeable about the fundamental concepts of these products through either hands-on experience or formal and informal education. The associate should have an in-depth knowledge of the basic to intermediate tasks required in day-to-day use of the following products:

IBM WebSphere Portal
IBM Web Content Manager
IBM Web Experience Factory
IBM Forms
IBM Forms Experience Builder

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
It is recommended that candidates have the following knowledge before beginning to prepare for this certification:

Working knowledge of IBM WebSphere Application Server, IBM WebSphere Portal, Java Enterprise Edition technologies, web servers, and Eclipse
Working knowledge of client-side browser technologies
Working knowledge of OS, networking, and firewall concepts
Basic knowledge of security (SSL, data encryption)
Basic knowledge of supported database software
Basic knowledge of protocols including HTTP, LDAP
Basic knowledge of problem determination

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QUESTION 1
What wp_profile_root/PortalServer/bin scripts generate WebSphere Portal version and history information?

A. WPVersion.Info.[sh/bat] and WPHistoryInfo.[sh/bat]
B. ReleaseBuilder.[sh/bat] and ConfigEngine.[sh/bat]
C. WPVersion.Info.[sh/bat] and ReleaseBuilder.[sh/bat]
D. genVersionReport[sh/bat] and ReleaseBuilder.[sh/bat]

Answer: C

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QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about virtual portals?

A. They share a database.
B. They run in separate JVMs.
C. They must have separate user populations.
D. They must all have the same administrators.

Answer: C
Reference: https://www-01.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSYJ99_8.5.0/adminsystem/advppln_mgupop.dita

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QUESTION 3
Which option does a developer use to create an exceptional web experience that is optimized across multiple devices?

A. dynamic data control (DDC)
B. wired equivalent policy (WEP)
C. responsive web design (RWD)
D. work progress administration (WPA)

Answer: C
Reference: http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/library/mo-aim1308-worklight-portal-v6-1/
(responsive web design)

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QUESTION 4
What is one operating system that IBM Forms Experience Builder is supported on?

A. IBM i
B. HP-UX
C. Solaris
D. IBM AIX

Answer: D
Reference: http://www-01.ibm.com/support/docview.wss?uid=swg27042363

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QUESTION 5
Which is the first step in installing the multilingual extensions?

A. Run the deployment command ConfigEngine.sh deploy-wcm-mls.
B. Run the registration command ConfigEngine.sh register-wcm-mls.
C. Run the update member fixer command ConfigEngine.sh run-wcm-admin-task-member-fixer.
D. Ensure that the WasPassword and PortalAdminPwd paswords are set in the wkplc.properties file.

Answer: B

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C9510-418 IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V9.0 Core Administration

Number of questions: 65
Number of questions to pass: 44
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live

This exam consists of 9 sections described below.

Section 1: Install and update the environment 14%
Apply maintenance to the product
Demonstrate an understanding of the IBM Installation Manager and IBM Packaging Utility and its role in installing, configuring, and maintaining IBM WebSphere Application Servers and components both locally and remotely.
Perform a silent installation for IBM WebSphere Application Server and fix pack installations.
Perform post-installation verification.
Troubleshoot installation problems.
Backup and restore the configuration including the use of checkpoints

Section 2: Create a high availability configuration 9%
Create multi-node topology and appropriate high availability model.
Manage nodes in an IBM WebSphere Application Server topology.
Configure and manage the HTTP server and the web server plug-in for high availability.
Configure distributed session management for high availability and failover scenarios.

Section 3: Configure security 17%
Configure user repositories.
Configure SSL for clients and servers.
Implement multiple security domains.
Apply administrative and application security roles.
Configure different authentication and authorization mechanisms.
Configure Java Enterprise, Web and Web Services Security.

Section 4: Monitor and tune the environment 9%
Use performance tooling to monitor the IBM WebSphere Application Server runtime.
Tune parameters that affect IBM WebSphere Application Server performance.
Use the Performance Monitoring Infrastructure (PMI) metrics and poll MBeans for performance data.
Configure and monitor the WebSphere Application Server caching mechanisms.

Section 5: Troubleshoot post-installation problems 11%
Enable High Performance Extensible Logging (HPEL) and view HPEL data.
Enable Cross Component Trace (XCT) and view trace data in XCT Log Viewer.
Use tools to trigger and analyze heap dumps, javacore dumps, system core dumps and verbose Garbage Collection (GC).
Use "mustgather" documentation and/or the IBM Support Assistant to collect and analyze diagnostic data or submit data to IBM Support.
Configure, review and analyze log files for the following: First Failure Data Capture (FFDC), system logs, native logs, and trace logs.

Section 6: Administer and configure the environment 20%
Connect databases.
Create and manage Full profiles.
Configure resources.
Illustrate the usage of the Integrated Solutions Console.
Use the capabilities of the Job Manager tooling.
Configure or modify an IBM WebSphere Application Server environment by using properties files and/or the monitored directory feature.
Configure an external HTTP server for the environment.
Use the standard set of command line tools to perform administrative tasks.

Section 7: Configure Intelligent Management features 6%
Use the dynamic cluster elasticity feature.
Create and configure On Demand Routers (ODR) and the ODR plug-in and associated service policies to enable the dynamic operations.
Use health policies and actions to monitor and react to changing performance in the environment.
Configure and maintain application editions.

Section 8: Demonstrate an understanding of a multi-tier environment 6%
Identify the components and services in an IBM WebSphere Application Server configuration and describe how they are related or interact.
Demonstrate an understanding of how requests traverse various WebSphere Application Server ND topologies.

Section 9: Deploy and administer applications 8%
Perform partial updates of enterprise applications, web applications, and business level applications.
Deploy applications to an IBM WebSphere Application Server environment.

The sample test is designed to give the candidate an idea of the content and format of the questions that will be on the certification exam. Performance on the sample test is NOT an indicator of performance on the certification exam. This should not be considered an assessment tool.

This exam has an Assessment Exam option: A9510-418 Assessment: IBM WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment V9.0 Core Administration

Assessment exams are web-based exams that provides you, at a cheaper costs, the ability to check your skills before taking the certification exam.

Passing the exam does not award you a certification, and it is only used to help you assess if you are ready or not to take the certification exam.

You can register for it at Pearson VUE and it will provide you a score report, showing you how you did in each section.

IBM recommends using a variety of resources to prepare for certification exams. During your preparation, it is important that you review the exam objectives periodically to make sure that all the material in the exam objectives is covered in your choice of preparation methods. It should be noted that there is not a one-to-one correspondence between these preparation methods and the exam.

Review the exam objectives to see the complete listing of possible topics for the exam. Use this as your checklist to determine your strengths and those areas where you will need to focus more attention in your studies and preparation. This information also includes recommend prerequisite skills and knowledge.

Actual hands-on experience is a critical component in preparing for the exam. Direct application of the skills learned cannot be substituted by any one other resource listed here. You must spend time using the product and applying the skills learned. The exam is looking to measure how well you know how to perform tasks, not how well you memorize features and functions.

WebSphere Application Server V9 Administration in a Federated Environment

In this course, you learn how to configure and maintain IBM WebSphere Application Server V9 Network Deployment. You learn how to deploy and create a deployment manager and federate a cell. In addition, you learn how to create a cluster within the federated cell.

WebSphere Application Server v9 Administration
In this course, you learn how to configure and maintain IBM WebSphere Application Server V9 in a single-server environment. You learn how to deploy enterprise Java applications in a single computer configuration. In addition, you learn how to work with features of WebSphere Application Server V9, such as the wsadmin scripting interface, security, and performance monitoring.
Product Documentation

IBM WebSphere Application Server V9.0 Documentation
View the latest IBM WebSphere Application Server traditional V9 documentation for IBM i, IBM AIX, HP-UX, Linux, Solaris, and Windows operating systems. This information applies to IBM WebSphere Application Server traditional V9 and to all subsequent releases and modifications until otherwise indicated in new editions.

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QUESTION 1
Which two ways are valid ways to install applications to IBM WebSphere Application Server? (Select two.)

A. wsadminscript
B. JMS messaging
C. IBM Installation Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Access Manager
E. Integrated Solutions Console

Answer: A,E

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Explanation:
Deploy an application or module using the administrative console, wsadmin, programming, or deployment tools.
References:https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSAW57_8.5.5/com.ibm.we bsphere.nd.doc/ae/crun_app_install.html

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QUESTION 2
Which is true when an administrator properly updates a single file within an application?

A. The administrator can use apartial application update.
B. The administrator must redeploy the full application file.
C. The administrator can manually update the file on the file system.
D. The administrator must uninstall the application, and then, reinstall with the updated application file.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 3
Which is true about software repositories for IBM Installation Manager?

A. Repositories must be local.
B. Repositories must be online.
C. Repositories can be either local or online.
D. Repositories are only in the media package.

Answer: C

Explanation:
IBM Installation Manager is a single installation program that can use remote or local software repositories to install,modify, or update certain IBM products. It determines and shows available packages, checks prerequisites and interdependencies, and installs or modifies the selected packages. You also use IBM Installation Manager to uninstall the packages that it installed.
References:http://www-01.ibm.com/support/docview.wss?uid=swg24023498

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QUESTION 4
Which of the following is true about creating multiple security domains?

A. A new security domain can be created only using the administrative console.
B. Global security must be enabled before creating new multiple security domains.
C. Only usersassigned to the security-admin role can create new multiple security domains.
D. If a unique name for the domain is not specified, the system will automatically create one.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Only users assigned to the administrator role can configure multiple security domains.
References:https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SSAW57_8.5.5/com.ibm.websp here.nd.doc/ae/csec_sec_multiple_domains.html

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QUESTION 5
Which statement describes the capabilities of the deployment manager?

A. Logical grouping of application servers
B. Created and installed when a node is federated into acell
C. Created automatically when an application server is federated into a cell
D. Manages nodes, node agents, and the configuration repository for the cell

Answer: D

Explanation:
The deployment manager is an administration application that runs in a special application server, which is created when you install the WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment product or when you create a management profile using the deployment manager profile template.
References:https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSAW57_8.5.5/com.ibm.we bsphere.nd.doc/ae/tagt_snsdply_is.html

HPE6-A43 Implementing Aruba Location Services

Exam ID:  HPE6-A43
Exam type: Proctored
Exam duration:  1 hour 30 minutes
Exam length: 70 questions
Passing score:  73%
Delivery languages: English
Related certifications : Aruba Certified Engagement and Analytics Professional (ACEAP) V1

Exam description
This exam tests your knowledge and skills with the Meridian product line and Aruba Location Services with Aruba Beacons. This includes Meridian AppMaker and SDK, maps and app content creation, how to troubleshoot deployment and Aruba Location Services Beacon configurations, and the ability to configure Aruba BLE Beacons. This exam also tests your integration knowledge and skills with the Analytics and Location Engine (ALE) and ClearPass.

Ideal candidate for this exam
Typical candidates for this exam are networking IT professionals or technical marketing professionals who know how to design and deploy Meridian location solutions with location and proximity beacons, and how to use the Meridian platform to develop a mobile application.

Exam contents
This exam has 70 questions.
Advice to help you take this exam

Complete the training and review all course materials and documents before you take the exam.
Exam items are based on expected knowledge acquired from job experience, an expected level of industry standard knowledge, or other prerequisites (events, supplemental materials, etc.).
Successful completion of the course alone does not ensure you will pass the exam.
Read this HPE Exam Preparation Guide and follow its recommendations.

Read the entire question and consider all options before you answer. If the question includes an exhibit, study the exhibit and read the question again. Select the answer that fully responds to the question. If the question asks for more than one answer, select all correct answers. There is no partial credit.

Objectives
This exam validates that you can:
Sections/Objectives 31%
Build Meridian Apps 33%
Deploy and Install Beacons 15%
Operate, Manage, and Maintain Beacons 7%
Troubleshoot Aruba Location Services 8%
Integrate ALE and Analytics 6%
Integrate ClearPass

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QUESTION 1
Where can an app developer configure and reset campaigns?

A. Campaigns can be configured and reset in the Meridian Editor
B. Campaigns can be configured and reset in the Meridian Editor and configured in the Beacons App
C. Campaigns can be configured in the Meridian Editior and reset in the Beacons App
D. Campaigns can be configured and reset in the Beacons App

Answer: B

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QUESTION 2
A retail customer does not have an Aruba location services deployment out has an existing Aruba Wi-Fi network with an Aruba 7210 controller with AP-205. The customer has identified six locations around its retail store where they would like to implement campaign push notifications. The customer also requires beacon management.
Which product mix is most suitable for this customer to achieve the goals of proximity push notifications as well as beacon management?

A. six AP-215s and six battery-powered beacons
B. six AP-325S
C. six AP-275S and six USB management beacons
D. six battery-powered beacons

Answer: B

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QUESTION 3
Which analytics tool uses Wi-Fi connections to gather information about clients, such as associations and unassociated clients?

A. Aruba Beacons app
B. ALE
C. Airwave
D. Aruba Sensor

Answer: D

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QUESTION 4
An app developer wants to change the layout of pages in a Meridian powered app. Which setting in AppMaker should the app developer modify to change the page layout?

A. Page format
B. Page style
C. Page layout
D. Page type

Answer: C

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QUESTION 5
What is the main use of ALE?

A. to create a mobile device app
B. to provide location analytics from Wi-Fi information
C. to interact with AirWave to provide RF heatmaps
D. to gather location analytics from beacons

Answer: D

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SY0-501 CompTIA Security+ (501)

Exam Details
Exam Codes SY0-401 SY0-501
Launch Date May 1, 2014 October ​4, 2017

Exam Description The CompTIA Security+ exam will certify the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills required to install and configure systems to secure applications, networks, and devices; perform threat analysis and respond with appropriate mitigation techniques; participate in risk mitigation activities; and operate with an awareness of applicable policies, laws, and regulations. The successful candidate will perform these tasks to support the principles of confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

Number of Questions Maximum of 90 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of Test 90 minutes
​Passing Score 750 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended Experience CompTIA Network+ and two years of experience in IT administration with a security focus
Languages English, Japanese, Portuguese and Simplified Chinese. English (Japanese, Portuguese and Simplified Chinese estimated Q2 2018)

Retirement
English retirement: July 31, 2018;
Japanese, Portuguese and Simplified Chinese: December 15, 2018
Usually three years after launch
CompTIA Security+ is the certification globally trusted to validate foundational, vendor-neutral IT security knowledge and skills. As a benchmark for best practices in IT security, this certification covers the essential principles for network security and risk management – making it an important stepping stone of an IT security career.

Jobs that use Security+
Security Specialist/Administrator
Security ​Consultant
Security or ​Systems ​Administrator
Network ​Administrator

Companies that use CompTIA Security+ include:
Apple
Dell
HP
IBM
Intel
U.S. Department of Defense

4 Steps to a Cybersecurity Career
Want more CompTIA Security+ information?

Overview
IT security is paramount to organizations as cloud computing and mobile devices have changed the way we do business. With the massive amounts of data transmitted and stored on networks throughout the world, it’s essential to have effective security practices in place. That’s where CompTIA Security+ comes in. Get the Security+ certification to show that you have the skills to secure a network and deter hackers and you’re ready for the job.

Security+ is government approved
CompTIA Security+ meets the ISO 17024 standard and is approved by U.S. Department of Defense to fulfill Directive 8570.01-M requirements. It is compliant with government regulations under the Federal Information Security Management Act (FISMA).

Security+ is globally recognized
CompTIA Security+ is a globally recognized credential with certified professionals working in over 147 countries throughout the world.

Security+ provides substantial earnings potential
According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, Security Specialists, Administrators and Managers earn over $86,000 per year.

Security+ is industry supported
Security+ is developed and maintained by leading IT experts. Content for the exams stems from a combination of industry-wide survey feedback and contributions from our team of subject matter experts. Learn more about the people behind the CompTIA Security+ Advisory Committee.

Certkingdom.com is CompTIA’s intelligent online learning tool to help you learn for your Security+ exam. It can verify what you already know and fill in knowledge where you need it. It’s a great addition to your learning prep and will be your guide on your path to master the Security+ curriculum.

Training Materials
There’s a wealth of training materials available that match your learning needs and learning style. Whether you are studying on your own, or in a classroom environment, we recommend CompTIA Authorized Quality Curriculum (CAQC) training materials that will help you get ready for your certification exam and pass the test.

For all training options, visit our training overview.

Instructor-Led Training
Instructor-led training provides a comfortable teaching environment with instructors that are familiar with the certification process and can help you master your certification exam. Find your instructor now.

Ready for the Test?
When you’ve completed your training and you know you can take your certification exam with confidence, head over to the CompTIA Marketplace and purchase your exam voucher that you will need to sign up for the test.

Once you’ve purchased your voucher, you can find a testing location and schedule your test.

Renewal
Keep your certification up to date with CompTIA’s Continuing Education (CE) program. It’s designed to be a continued validation of your expertise and a tool to expand your skillset. It’s also the ace up your sleeve when you’re ready to take the next step in your career.

Get the most out of your certification
Information technology is an incredibly dynamic field, creating new opportunities and challenges every day. Participating in our Continuing Education program will enable you to stay current with new and evolving technologies and remain a sought-after IT and security expert.

The CompTIA Continuing Education program
Your CompTIA Security+ certification is good for three years from the day of your exam. The CE program allows you to extend your certification in three-year intervals through activities and training that relate to the content of your certification. Like Security+ itself, CompTIA Security+ ce also carries globally-recognized ISO/ANSI accreditation status.

It’s easy to renew
You can participate in a number of activities and training programs, including higher certifications, to renew your CompTIA Security+ certification. Collect at least 50 Continuing Education Units (CEUs) in three years, upload them to your certification account, and Security+ will automatically renew.

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QUESTION 1
A security analyst wishes to increase the security of an FTP server. Currently, all trails to the FTP server is unencrypted. Users connecting to the FTP server use a variety of modem FTP client software. The security analyst wants to keep the same port and protocol, while also still allowing unencrypted connections. Which of the following would BEST accomplish these goals?

A. Require the SFTP protocol to connect to the file server.
B. Use implicit TLS on the FTP server.
C. Use explicit FTPS for the connections.
D. Use SSH tunneling to encrypt the FTP traffic.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 2
A company has three divisions, each with its own networks and services. The company decides to make its secure web portal accessible to all employees utilizing their existing usernames and passwords, The security administrator has elected to use SAML to support authentication. In this scenario, which of the following will occur when users try to authenticate to the portal? (Select TWO)

A. B. The portal will function as an identity provider and issue an authentication assertion
B. C. The portal will request an authentication ticket from each network that is transitively trusted
C. D. The back-end networks will function as an identity provider and issue an authentication assertion
D. The back-end networks will request authentication tickets from the portal, which will act as the third-party service provider authentication store
E. F. The back-end networks will verify the assertion token issued by the portal functioning as the identity provider

Answer: C

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QUESTION 3
Which of the following would a security specialist be able to determine upon examination of a server's certificate?

A. CA public key
B. Server private key
C. CSR
D. OID

Answer: B

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C5050-101 IBM SoftLayer Solution Architect V1

Number of questions: 50
Number of questions to pass: 32

Time allowed: 90 mins
This exam consists of 3 sections described below.

Section 1 - General 34%
Identify Solution Design Priciples and Best Practices
Knowledge of Private Cloud - VMWare and HyperVisor
Explain how to build and deploy new servers using Image Templates
Given a scenario, determine when to use specific APIs
Identify the tools for Configuration Management
Explain how, when and where to use Auto-Scaling

Section 2 - Network 44%
Given a scenario, determine how Vyatta fits into the SoftLayer Solution
Given a scenario, determine how Netscaler fits into the SoftLayer Solution
Given a scenario, determine how Fortigate fits into the SoftLayer Solution
Explain how to utilize Advanced Networking topics to enhance the SoftLayer Solution
Explain how and when to use Direct Link

Section 3 - Storage 22%
Given a scenario, determine how Quantastor fits into the SoftLayer Solution
Given a scenario, explain the usage of Object Storage / CDN /CleverSafe
Explain how and when to use Endurance Storage Solution Guidance


PartnerWorld Code: 50002001
Replaces PW Code: Not Applicable
Status: Live

An IBM Certified Solution Architect - SoftLayer V1 is a person who can analyze, design, architect and demonstrate IBM SoftLayer infrastructure based upon the workload requirements from a client.

They can do this with limited assistance from support, documentation or relevant subject matter experts and know how to contact SoftLayer to get assistance.

Key areas of competency include:

Demonstrate the ability to provide a customer with a logical diagram foundation to meet their requirements and a roadmap to get there.
Architect a comprehensive solution that utilizes the IBM offerings and skills required.

The following qualifications are requirements for success:
Basic knowledge of industry cloud computing principles
Working knowledge of IBM SoftLayer
Working knowledge of designing a comprehensive solution based on logical diagrams
Working knowledge of how to implement and customize the solution
Working knowledge of the various types of clouds and -as a service- offerings

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Basic knowledge of IBM consulting principles
Working knowledge of the concepts covered in the IBM Solution Advisor -SoftLayer V1 exam

Requirements
This certification requires 1 exam

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C5050-062 Rational UrbanCode Deploy

Test information:
Number of questions: 70
Time allowed in minutes: 75
Required passing score: 70%
Languages: English, Japanese, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Deployment Professional - Rational UrbanCode Deploy

Section 1: How UrbanCode Deploy fits within IBM DevOps
Recognize and describe the IBM approach to DevOps
Identify and describe the capabilities that UrbanCode Deploy delivers to IBM DevOps
Identify and describe the concepts and challenges of continuous software delivery in a DevOps context

Section 2: Implementing Security in UrbanCode Deploy
Use UC Deploy to configure group and team roles
Use UC Deploy to configure External security realms including LDAP, Active Directory and SSO.
Identify the features of the security model used by UC Deploy

Section 3: Programming and Plugins
Determine the various types of plugins for UC Deploy
Use automation and source configuration plugins in UC Deploy
Update and delete plugins in UC Deploy

Section 4: UrbanCode Deploy Architecture
Identify the concepts of Resources, Resource Groups, Agents, Agent Relays Agent Pools
Recognize the concepts of Applications, Components, Snapshots, Versions and Artifacts
Recognize the elements of the Basic Usage Model of UrbanCode Deploy and the flow of operations including configuration of the deployment environment, development, deploy to the pipeline and chaining of environment deployments

Section 5: UrbanCode Deploy Integrations
Identify UC Deploy integration capabilities with other products
Identify UC Deploy and Cloud integration capabilities

Section 6: Using UrbanCode Deploy
Determine the requirements for product installation
Use UC Deploy to create and configure Applications and related Environments, Processes, Approvals, +Notifications and Properties
Use UC Deploy to create and configure Components and related artifacts, properties and versions
Use UC Deploy to create snapshots
Use UC Deploy to create and configure Resources and related Agents, Subresources, Resource Roles and +Resource Templates
Identify and describe the concepts of Inventory, Compliancy and Model-driven Deployments

IBM Certified Deployment Professional - Rational UrbanCode Deploy

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This certification targets intermediate level Deployment Professionals. This Deployment Professional can plan, install, configure and troubleshoot a new implementation of the UrbanCode Deploy product. The Deployment Professional can also upgrade, update, configure and troubleshoot existing installations of UrbanCode Deploy.

The Deployment Professional should have an intermediate level of knowledge of UrbanCode Deploy and a firm understanding of how UrbanCode Deploy can be implemented in a small and simple environment as well as a large and complex environment. The Deployment Professional can train, tutor and mentor IBM customers in the installation, configuration and ongoing use of UrbanCode Deploy. The Deployment Professional can perform most of these tasks independently and may require some assistance from peers and vendor support services.

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).
QUESTION: No: 1
A security type is a product area that can have permissions defined for it. Each security type has a set of
permissions that affect how users interact with it. How many security types are available in IBM
Urban Code Deploy?

A. 13
B. 10
C. 3
D. 5

Answer: D

Explanation:
A security type is a product area that has permissions defined for it. There are several security types predefined. They are system, application, release, deployment, status, and initiatives and changes.
Other than the Status security type, permissions are predefined.

References:
http://vvww.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS4GCC_6.2.1/com.ibm.ureIease.doc/topics/security_types.htmI

---

QUESTION: No: 2
In orderto set up an integration with WebSphere, you first perform a WebSphere Topology Discovery.
WebSphere is not installed in a default location and so you must notify IBNI UCD concerning the location
of the wsadmin executable. What is the name of the property thatyou must set, and where do you set it?

A. You must set the wsadmin.Iocation property on the correct resource.
B. You must set the wsadmin.path property on the correct agent.
C. You must set the wsadmin.executabIe on the correct resource.
D. You must set the wsadmin.Iocation on the correct agent.

Answer: B

Explanation:
If WebSphere Application Server is deployed in a directory otherthan the default directory, you must set a property on the agent before you can run the WebSphere Topology Discovery step.

1. Go to Resources > Agents > <agent-name> > Configuration > Agent Properties.
2. Add a property named wsadmin.path.
3. Set wsadmin.path to the fully qualified path tothe wsadmin script (including the script name).

References:
http://vvww.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/SS4GSP_6.0.1/com.ibm.udepIoy.pIugins.doc/topics/pIu gins_websphereportaI_config_depIoy.htmI

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VCS-323 Administration of Veritas Backup Exec 16

Although each product varies in complexity and depth of technical knowledge, all certification exams, targeting customers in an administrative role, cover core elements measuring technical knowledge against factors such as installation, configuration, deployment, product administration, management, day-to-day maintenance, and basic troubleshooting.

The certified administrator demonstrates an understanding of the installation, configuration, and administration of Backup Exec 16. The VCS Backup Exec 16 administrator with this knowledge will be better prepared to proactively manage the Backup Exec operations in the environment in which it is installed.

Passing this exam will result in a Veritas Certified Specialist (VCS) certification and counts towards the requirements for a Veritas Certified Professional (VCP) certification in Data Protection.

Exam Details
# of Questions: 80 - 90
Exam Duration: 105 minutes
Passing Score: 69%
Languages: English
Exam Price: $225 USD (or your country’s currency equivalent)

Suggested Preparation

Backup Exec 16 Administration
Note: If you do not have prior experience with this product, it is recommended that you complete an in-person, classroom training or Virtual Academy virtual classroom training class in preparation for the VCS exam. Be cautioned that attendance in a training course does not guarantee passage of a certification exam.

Recommended preparation steps:
Exam Preparation Guide (PDF): Download and review the guide to understand the scope of topics covered in the certification exam and how they map to the key lessons and topics in the associated training course(s).
Attend recommended training classes listed above.

Gain hands-on experience with the product. 3-6 months experience working with Backup Exec in a production or lab environment is recommended.
Sample Exam (PDF): Test yourself and your exam-taking skills using the sample exam

In addition, you should be familiar with the following product documentation and web sites:
Veritas Backup Exec 16 Licensing Guide
Veritas Backup Exec 16 Readme First Release Notes
Veritas Backup Exec 16 Administrator's Guide
Veritas Backup Exec 16 Software Compatibility List
Veritas Backup Exec 16 Hardware Compatibility List
Backup Exec Product Documentation
Backup Exec Product Page
Backup Exec Technical Support
Backup Exec Updates, Patches and News
Veritas Communities

Recommended hands-on experience (real world or virtual):
Recommended 3-6 months experience working with Backup Exec in a production or lab environment.
Have knowledge of the various Backup Exec 16 licensing editions.
Describe the basic components, devices, terms, and concepts of Backup Exec.
Install Backup Exec 16 and add additional agents and options on the Backup Exec server after the installation.
Describe the features of Backup Exec 16.
Describe the various backup methods available in Backup Exec.
Configure preferences and global settings.
Configure storage devices.
Create jobs to backup, restore, convert, and duplicate.
Install and configure Agents for Windows.
Add and manage protected server resources.
Install Backup Exec updates and apply updates to Windows and Linux agents.
Run inventory and catalog and other utility jobs.
Identify agents and options used with Backup Exec in their environment.
Describe enhanced backup job functionality (e.g., GRT, Instant GRT, Disk Staging, Duplication of backup sets, data encryption, snapshot, and virtual environments).
Perform basic troubleshooting (e.g., restart services, interpret job logs, check Event Viewer, check Configuration Tasks Widget, run Backup Exec troubleshooting tools, etc.).
Import, export, and back up the Database Encryption Key.

QUESTION 1
Which option should an administrator select to add a tape with a barcode to the library?
A. Initialize now
B. Scan
C. Inventory and Catalog now
D. Inventory

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 2
Which options must be installed to share a Robotic Library containing one tape drive between an NDMP server and multiple Backup Exec servers?
A. the NDMP Option and the Library Expansion Option (LEO)
B. the Enterprise Server Option (CSO) and the Virtual Tape Library Unlimited Drive Option (VUDO)
C. the NDMP Option and the Enterprise Server Option (ESO)
D. the NDMP Option and the Virtual Tape Library Unlimited Drive Option (VUDO)

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 3
Which two conditions cause Data Discovery to fail to detect remote servers in the same domain as the Backup Exec server? (Select two.)
A. The administrator failed to add the default logon account to the local administrators group on the remote servers
B. The servers have Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) disabled
C. The firewall on the remote servers is configured to block WMI traffic
D. The firewall on the remote servers is configured to block port 10000
E. The remote servers have an old version of the Symantec Backup Exec Remote Agent installed

Answer: B,C

---

QUESTION 4
What are two requirements for configuring Optimized Duplication between two or more Backup Exec servers? (Select two.)
A. The Central Admin Server (CAS) and Managed Backup Exec Server (MBES) must be configured.
B. The NDMP option must be installed.
C. The OS must be similar on the Backup Exec servers where the Deduplication Folder needs to be shared.
D. The same Deduplication account must be used on all the Backup Exec servers.
E. The Deduplication storage on each Backup Exec server must be shared.

Answer: A,E

---

QUESTION 5
Within which section of Backup Exec Settings should the administrator define the Database Encryption Key export path?
A. Preferences
B. Network and Security
C. Database Maintenance and Security
D. Storage

Answer: D

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C2150-612 IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.6 Associate Analyst

Test information:
Number of questions: 54
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 66%
Languages: English, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Associate Analyst - Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.6

The test consists of 5 sections containing a total of approximately 54 multiple-choice questions. The percentages after each section title reflect the approximate distribution of the total question set across the sections.

Section 1 - General Networking and QRadar SIEM concepts (17%)
Compare different protocols, traffic types, and port numbers.
Describe and illustrate log source types.
Compare the different event log transport methods.
Discuss security device concepts (firewall, IDS/IPS, Proxy, Authentication devices, and antivirus software).
Explain how environment information can be used to enrich event and flow data intelligently.
Explain data normalization and categorization.
Enumerate the common characteristics of a SIEM.

Section 2 - QRadar basics (26%)
Explain the different types of correlations (CRE and ADE).
Illustrate the function of a DSM.
Explain how Log sources, flow sources, vulnerability scanners, and reference data are used in Qradar.
Compare flows to events.
Explain QRadar network hierarchy and how it aids in "seeing the whole picture" .
Describe additional QRadar add-on components (QVM, QRM, QRIF).
Distinguish offenses from triggered rules.
Distinguish search results from reports.
Distinguish rules from building blocks.
Compare rule responses and rule actions.
Explain the core system functionality of �Host Definition� building blocks.
Summarize QRadar Components; Console, Event Processor, Event Collector, Flow Processor, Data Nodes and Flow Collector.

Section 3 - QRadar login and navigation (13%)
Explain how to login to and navigate the GUI console.
Describe the types of information available on the DASHBOARD tab.
Describe the types of information available on the OFFENSES tab.
Describe the types of information available on the LOG ACTIVITY and NETWORK ACTIVITY tabs.
Describe the types of information available on the ASSETS tab.
Describe the types of information available on the REPORT tab.
Demonstrate the appropriate procedure to navigate to, from and within an offense.

Section 4 - QRadar functions and capabilities (18%)
Explain the different ways to assign offenses and add notation.
Summarize offense search functionalities.
Illustrate examples of dashboard customizations.
Distinguish right click functionality (plugins, information, navigate, other).
Demonstrate the use of right-click event filtering.
Explain how to explore the content of an event, review the normalized fields and the payload.
Show the Offense lifecycle.
Compare Event/Flow/Common/Offense/Anomaly/Behavioral/ Threshold Rules.
Demonstrate how to export Flow/Event data for external analysis.

Section 5 - QRadar data interpretation (26%)
Explain Offense details on offense details view.
Explain why payloads (raw data) may need to be reviewed.
Distinguish offenses from triggered rules.
Examine the differences between an offense magnitude and an event magnitude.
Describe how to run Reports and the formats in which they can be output.
Outline Offense Closing Procedures.
Discuss the Asset Database and how assets are profiled.
Outline simple Offense naming mechanisms (Removed: not testable).
Explain differences between various event/flow timestamps.
Understand the capabilities of different sources of flows.
Give examples of how QRadar can show different security concerns (i.e., Advanced Persistent Threat (APT), Brute Force, DDoS, etc.)
Describe coalescing.
Compare Standard Custom Properties, User-defined Custom Properties and Normalized properties.
Compare the different types of searches that can be performed (AQL, Quick Searches, and Searches via the Edit Search GUI panel).
Explain the information provided by flows.
Describe a use where flows provide more information than events.

IBM Certified Associate Analyst - Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.6

Job Role Description / Target Audience
This entry level certification is intended for security analysts who wish to validate their comprehensive knowledge of IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.6.

These security analysts will understand basic networking, SIEM, and QRadar concepts, including how to login to, navigate within, explain capabilities of, and access, interpret, and report data in a QRadar deployment.

To attain the IBM Certified Associate Analyst - Security QRadar SIEM V7.2.6 certification, candidates must pass 1 test. To prepare for the test, it is recommended to refer to the job role description and recommended prerequisite skills, and click the link to the test below to refer to the test objectives and the test preparation tab.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

Basic knowledge of:
SIEM concepts
TCP/IP networking and protocols
network security concepts
internet security attack types
compliance and audit requirements
incident management and response

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).

---

QUESTION: No: 1
Where can a user add a note to an offense in the user interface?

A. Dashboard and Offenses Tab
B. Offenses Tab and Offense Detail Window
C. Offenses Detail Window, Dashboard, and Ad min Tab
D. Dashboard, Offenses Tab, and Offense Detail Window

Answer: B

---

QUESTION: No: 2
When might a Security Analyst want to review the payload of an event?

A. When immediately after login, the dashboard notifies the analyst of payloads that must be investigated
B. When "Review payload" is added to the offense description automatically by the "System: Notification" rule
C. When the event is associated with an active offense, the payload may contain information that is not normalized or extracted fields
D. When the event is associated with an active offense with a magnitude greater than 5, the payload should be reviewed, otherwise it is not necessary

Answer: C

---

QUESTION: No: 3
Which key elements does the Report Wizard use to help create a report?

A. Layout, Container, Content
B. Container, Orientation, Layout
C. Report Classification, Time, Date
D. Pagination Option, Orientation, Date

Answer: A

---

QUESTION: No: 4
How is an event magnitude calculated?

A. As the sum of the three properties Severity, Credibility and Relevance of the Event
B. As the sum of the three properties Severity, Credibility and Importance of the Event
C. As a weighted mean of the three properties Severity, Credibility and Relevance of the Event
D. As a weighted mean of the three properties Severity, Credibility and Importance of the Event

Answer: C

---

QUESTION: No: 5
What is a benefit of using a span port, mirror port, or network tap as flow sources for QRadar?

A. These sources are marked with a current timestamp.
B. These sources show the ASN number of the remote system .
C. These sources show the username that generated the flow.
D. These sources include payload for layer 7 application analysis.

Answer: D

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Exam 70-735 OEM Manufacturing and Deployment for Windows 10

Published: June 19, 2017
Languages: English
Audiences: IT Professionals
Technology: Windows 10
Credit toward certification: MCP

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.

If you have other questions or feedback about Microsoft Certification exams or about the certification program, registration, or promotions, please contact your Regional Service Center.

Prepare the Imaging Environment (20-25%)
Install deployment tools and scripts
Prepare the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK), prepare the required tools from the Windows ADK installation
Add customizations to the image
Use tools to design an answer file that will add branding to the device, add OEM information such as support URL or phone support number, provide the default product key for OEM Activation implementation, set the default user languages, add the custom logo and wallpaper
Create a Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE)
Use the Windows ADK scripts to create the Windows PE source files, add optional packages, add default languages, add custom scripts, create a bootable USB or ISO file of the Windows PE, add device drivers

Service the Offline Image (40-45%)
Add drivers to the image
Choose the recommended installation paths for adding drivers, add INF-based drivers offline, add INF-based drivers from a folder path using deployment tools
Add language packs to the image
Distinguish the difference between a language pack and a language interface pack; determine when to use Feature on Demand language packs, how to apply the ordering of Feature on Demand language packs when adding new languages to the image, and which language packs should be applied to the Recovery image; set the default time zone in the image; set the default input and system locales in the image
Add update packages to the image
Choose which updates to apply, select which updates to apply to Windows image and Recovery image
Service in-box applications
Reapply in-box applications, select the appropriate dependency packages for each application bundle, troubleshoot installation failures, pin apps to Start layout and taskbar
Optimize the image
Mark updates in a Recovery image as permanent, export a Recovery image, set scratch space size, check the overall size of a Recovery image for partition layout schemes
Deploy the image
Select the disk partition layout, run DISM to apply the image, set up the recovery environment, boot into Audit mode for online servicing

Service the Online Image (35-40%)
Preinstall Office 2016
Prepare office files for preinstallation, create configuration files, add multiple languages, set up the first user experience
Create restore packages
Use ScanState to create restore packages of installed desktop applications, registry settings, and application settings
Prepare the recovery environment
Create extensibility scripts, create configuration files, create migration files, copy backup files to the recovery folder for Push Button Reset
Reseal the image
Use Sysprep to reseal the image to OOBE, boot to Windows PE for final capture, optimize the image for disk footprint, mark update packages as permanent, optimize the image for deployment, use deployment tools to capture the final image for mass deployment
Deploy and validate the image
Test the final image deployment, verify that settings are correct, the image passes system validation tests, and Push Button Reset restores the image to its correct state
QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You are building a new image of Windows 10 that contains a push-button reset solution.
You need to test whether push-button reset works as expected.
Solution: From Windows 10. you press and hold the SHIFT key, and then you restart the computer. After the computer restarts, you click Troubleshoot, and then you click Reset this PC.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question Is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 has the Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK) installed.
You are building a new image of Windows 10.
You copy the installation media for Windows 10 to Computer1.
You need to add drivers to the Windows 10 image.

A. Mount the Install.wim file.
B. Mount the Boot.wim file.
C. Modify the Winpeshl.ini file.
D. Create an answer file.
E. Modify the Windows.ini file.
F. Create a provisioning package.
G. Load a catalog file (.clg).
H. Create a cabinet file (.cab).

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 3
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
To provide the default product key for OEM activation, you create an answer file by using Windows System Image Manager (Windows SIM), and you add the Microsoft-Windows-Shell-Setup component and the ProductKey component to the generalize pass.
Review the underlined text. It it makes the statement correct, select "No change is needed." If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed
B. auditSystem pass
C. specialize pass
D. windowsPE pass

Answer: C

---

QUESTION 4
You deploy an image of Windows 10.
From audit mode, you install several applications for a customer, and then you run sysprep.exe /oobe /quit.
You need to identify whether any errors occurred when you ran sysprep.exe.
Which folder contains the log files?

A. %WINDIR%\Logs
B. %WlNDIR%\System32\LogFiles
C. %WINDIR%\Panther\
D. %WINDIR%\System32\Sysprep\Panther

Answer: D

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C5050-300 Foundations of IBM DevOps V1

Test information:
Number of questions: 61
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 70%
Languages: English, Japanese

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Solution Advisor - DevOps V1

Section 1 - DevOps Principles
Define DevOps
Summarize different development approaches
Explain and identify delivery pipelines
Explain lean principles
Explain DevOps practices
Describe Collaborative Development
Describe Continuous Integration
Describe Continuous Delivery
Describe Continuous Deployment
Describe Continuous Availability / Service Management / Monitoring
Describe Continuous Security / Security for DevOps
Explain Shift-Left Test /Continuous Test
Explain Shift Left Ops
Explain Multi-speed IT
Explain Continuous Feedback
Explain the implications of the �12 Factor app� design principles for DevOps
ITIL and DevOps

Section 2 - Adopting DevOps
Describe business and IT drivers of DevOps
Explain the barriers to adoption of DevOps
Explain how to build a roadmap for DevOps adoption
Explain how to adopt DevOps in Multi-speed IT environment
Explain other continuous improvement approaches
Illustrate the cultural & organizational differences when transforming from traditional to DevOps processes
Explain the benefits of Design Thinking for DevOps process adoption

Section 3 - IBM DevOps Reference Architecture & Methods
Describe IBM DevOps Reference Architecture pattern
Explain the IBM point of view on DevOps
Explain DevOps for Microservices
Explain DevOps for Cloud Native
Explain DevOps for Cloud Ready
Explain Cloud Service Management Operations
Describe the IBM Bluemix Garage Method
Define and identify the common components of a DevOps Tool chain
Describe the key architectural decisions made to adopt DevOps
Describe the concepts of Software Defined Environments

Section 4 - Open Standards, Open Source & Other Common Components of DevOps
Identify tools for Build & Deploy
Identify other common tools and their uses
Describe common container technology
Explain the applicability of open standards for DevOps

Section 5 - IBM Solution for DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the THINK phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the CODE phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the DELIVER phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the RUN phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the MANAGE phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the LEARN phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for the CULTURE phase in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for Security in DevOps
Describe the IBM solutions for transformation and connectivity in DevOps
IBM Certified Solution Advisor - DevOps V1

Job Role Description / Target Audience
An IBM Certified Solution Advisor - DevOps V1 is a person who can clearly explain the benefits and underlying concepts of DevOps, and has practical experience of implementing DevOps processes and solutions for clients. They can advise stakeholders on how to adopt DevOps, how to overcome barriers, and how to realize the business benefits of DevOps. They can also demonstrate how the leading industry, Open and IBM solution offerings can help customers realize these benefits.

Key areas of competency include:
Clearly articulate the benefits of DevOps for driving business agility and continuous innovation.
Advise stakeholders on how to remove barriers to the adoption of DevOps, and implement organizational change and continual process improvement.
Have a deep working experience of Continuous delivery (integration, delivery, collaboration, innovation) practices.
Experience of application development lifecycle, operational methods, SCM, version control and common tooling for cloud-ready and cloud-native application development.
Working knowledge of development, test automation and virtualization, deployment, and operational best practices.
Understand the IBM DevOps reference architecture patterns, and can apply them to DevOps solutions.
Recommend the best approach, tooling and consumption models (on premises / public / SaaS) across the IBM solution portfolio (and leading open toolchain components).

Recommended Prerequisite Skills

The following qualifications are requirements for success:
Advanced knowledge of DevOps principles, practices, and development approaches
Advanced experience of Continuous delivery (integration, delivery, collaboration, innovation) practices.
Working knowledge of the IBM DevOps Reference Architecture and associated adoption patterns.
Working knowledge of tooling and consumption models (on-premises / public / SaaS) from the IBM DevOps portfolio.
Working knowledge of the IBM DevOps solution offerings.

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).

---

QUESTION 1
Which type of tests are designed to verify that security features such as authentication and logout work as expected?

A. build verification
B. network vulnerability
C. functional security
D. synthetic user

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 2
When long lived source control management (SCM) branches are merged, significant amounts of network can be required to resolve code conflicts. Which DevOps practice addresses this problem?

A. continuous integration
B. test-driven development
C. A/B testing
D. continuous deployment

Answer: B

---

QUESTION 3
What are two key metrics for cloud native applications? (Choose two.)

A. performance
B. stability
C. mean time between failures (MTBF)
D. first failure data capture (FFDC)
E. speed of change

Answer: A,E

Explanation: References:

---

QUESTION 4
Which volume of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) should be an integral part of every stage of the ITIL service management framework?

A. ITILService Design
B. ITIL Service Operations
C. ITIL Continual Service Improvement
D. ITIL Service Strategy

Answer: C

Explanation: References:

---

QUESTION 5
How does adopting DevOps help improve insight into the real value of applications?

A. by using mean time between failure (MTBF) metrics
B. by using customer feedback
C. by using usage statistics for cloud native applications
D. by using analytical analysis for return on investment (ROI) calculations

Answer: A

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C2150-205 IBM Security Directory Integrator Implementation V7.2

Test information:
Number of questions: 60
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 55%
Languages: English, French, Latin American Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil)

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Deployment Professional - Security Directory Integrator V7.2

Security Directory Integrator Concepts (23%)
Identify SDI components, data models, and tools used to provide solutions and integrations.
Identify the common Java objects that can be leveraged to build SDI solutions.
Identify various files that make up a SDI solution.
Identify how to use the System Store, Password Store, User Property Store, third-party RDBMS, and different modes of Derby to provide a SDI solution.
Identify the components and features for Delta Handling and Delta Detection in SDI.
Given a scenario, outline how to use Delta Handling components and features to create an AL that performs one-way synchronization.
Given a scenario, explain the different Connector modes and how they effect the flow of data through an SDI AL.
Given a scenario, identify where JavaScript can be used to manipulate data and the logic of the assembly line.
Given a scenario, explain the concepts, components, and capabilities of SDI password synchronization.
Given a scenario, describe how Assembly Lines can be monitored and controlled, i.e., Dashboard, +Administration and Monitoring Console (AMC), Action Manager (AM), etc.
Given a scenario, describe the AL lifecycle and the various operation modes when starting an AL.Given a scenario, describe the Initial Work Entry (IWE) and the Task Call Block (TCB).
Describe appropriate uses of Connectors in ALs.
Given a scenario to build a solution aligned with loosely coupled, service-oriented architecture and Interoperability standards, describe Server Mode and how it is used.

Planning and Architecture (13%)
Given a scenario, identify information you should know about a customer's IT environment so that you can design a compatible SDI solution.
Identify ways to implement change management.
Given a scenario about a running production environment and completed solution, export the solution, modify appropriate configuration files, stage the files and monitor the start of the solution, so that the solution has been moved into a production environment.
Given a scenario, explain different uses and ramifications of sharing a central data store between multiple ALs.
Given a scenario, explain how to plan for availability and performance, as well as exception/error reporting and auditing, in a robust and scalable SDI solution.

Installation and Configuration (12%)
Given a scenario, identify information you should know about a customer's IT environment so that you can design a compatible SDI solution.
Identify ways to implement change management.
Given a scenario about a running production environment and completed solution, export the solution, modify appropriate configuration files, stage the files and monitor the start of the solution, so that the solution has been moved into a production environment.
Given a scenario, explain different uses and ramifications of sharing a central data store between multiple ALs.
Given a scenario, explain how to plan for availability and performance, as well as exception/error reporting and auditing, in a robust and scalable SDI solution.

Assembly Line Development (30%)

Problem Determination (12%)
Given a scenario, use log analysis and exception stack traces to locate and identify key messages to isolate a problem source and interpret the root case of the exception.
Identify SDI debugger features.
Given a scenario, explain how an administrator addresses memory issues in the SDI server.
Given a scenario, explain how a Connector's connection issue can be handled by the SDI Server.

Federated Directory Server (10%)
Given a scenario, demonstrate use of the FDS console
Identify approaches to troubleshoot FDS
Identify key concepts, components, and architecture of Federated Directory Server.
Identify key concepts, components, and architecture of�a flow.
Identify key concepts, components, and architecture of endpoints

IBM Certified Deployment Professional - Security Directory Integrator V7.2

Job Role Description / Target Audience
An IBM Certified Deployment Professional for IBM Security Directory Server is an individual who has demonstrated the ability to design, implement, test, and support an IBM Security Directory Server solution. It is expected that this person is able to perform the tasks independently a majority of the time with limited assistance from peers, product documentation, and vendor support services and in some situations, take leadership and provide mentoring to peers.

Requirements
This certification requires 1 test(s).

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C2090-913 Informix 4GL Development

Test information:
Number of questions: 90
Time allowed in minutes: 90
Required passing score: 78%
Languages: English

Related certifications:
IBM Certified Solutions Expert -- Informix 4GL Developer

If you are a knowledgeable Informix 4GL Developer and are capable of performing the intermediate to advanced skills required to design and develop Informix database applications, you may benefit from this certification role.

Section 1 - Informix 4GL (18%)

Section 2 - Statements (28%)

Section 3 - Cursors and Memory (13%)

Section 4 - Creating a Help File: The mkmessage Utility (1%)

Section 5 - Creating a Report Driver (3%)

Section 6 - Defining Program Variables (3%)

Section 7 - Displaying Forms and Windows (4%)

Section 8 - Forms that use Arrays (4%)

Section 9 - Passing Values between Functions (6%)

Section 10 - procedural Logic (1%)

Section 11 - The REPORT Functions (3%)

Section 12 - The SQLCA Record (6%)

IBM Certified Solutions Expert -- Informix 4GL Developer

Job Role Description / Target Audience
If you are a knowledgeable Informix 4GL Developer and are capable of performing the intermediate to advanced skills required to design and develop Informix database applications, you may benefit from this certification role.

To attain the IBM Certified Solutions Expert - Informix 4GL Developer certification, candidates must pass 1 test.

Recommended Prerequisite Skills
Significant experience as an Informix 4GL Developer.

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QUESTION 1
Which parts of the DISPLAY ARRAY statement are always required?

A. ON KEY keywords
B. screen array name
C. program array name
D. END DISPLAY keywords
E. DISPLAY ARRAY keywords
F. BEFORE DISPLAY keywords

Answer: B,C,E

Explanation:

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QUESTION 2
What can the arr_count() library function be used to determine?

A. the current position in the screen array
B. the current position in the program array
C. the number of elements in the screen array
D. the number of elements in the program array

Answer: D

Explanation:

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QUESTION 3
Which features are unique to the INPUT ARRAY statement?

A. BEFORE/AFTER ROW clause
B. BEFORE/AFTER INPUT clause
C. BEFORE/AFTER FIELD clause
D. BEFORE/AFTER DELETE clause
E. BEFORE/AFTER INSERT clause

Answer: A,D,E

Explanation:

Explanation:

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Exam 70-694 Virtualizing Enterprise Desktops and Apps

Published: January 8, 2015
Languages: English
Audiences: IT professionals
Technology: Windows 8.1, Windows Server 2012 R2, Microsoft Intune
Credit toward certification: MCP

Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below. The percentages indicate the relative weight of each major topic area on the exam. The higher the percentage, the more questions you are likely to see on that content area on the exam. View video tutorials about the variety of question types on Microsoft exams.

Please note that the questions may test on, but will not be limited to, the topics described in the bulleted text.

Do you have feedback about the relevance of the skills measured on this exam? Please send Microsoft your comments. All feedback will be reviewed and incorporated as appropriate while still maintaining the validity and reliability of the certification process. Note that Microsoft will not respond directly to your feedback. We appreciate your input in ensuring the quality of the Microsoft Certification program.

If you have concerns about specific questions on this exam, please submit an exam challenge.

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Plan app virtualization (27%)
Design an app distribution strategy
Design considerations, including impact on clients, offline access, deployment infrastructure, and remote locations; plan for updates to apps
Plan and implement app compatibility
Configure and implement Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit; planning considerations, including Remote Desktop Services (RDS), Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI), client Hyper-V, and Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT); plan for application version co-existence
Update apps in desktop images
Configure online servicing, apply patches offline, configure offline virtual machine (VM) servicing, update Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) task sequences

Implement app virtualization (25%)
Configure App-V
Configure a new application, configure a Connection Group, configure App-V reporting on the client, create a report for App-V
Deploy App-V clients
Install and test the App-V client; configure the App-V client; configure the App-V client, by using Group Policy
Configure apps sequencing
Install the App-V Sequencer, deploy sequenced apps, update sequenced apps, publish Office 2013 and Sequencing Add-On for Word 2013, deploy connected apps

Plan and implement virtual desktops (21%)
Plan for pooled and personal desktops
Planning considerations, including shared storage, network, Storage Spaces, and scale-out file servers; plan capacity
Implement virtual desktop collections
Configure collections type, VM creation, and user assignments; configure client settings; configure Active Directory permissions
Plan and implement Remote Desktop Services (RDS)
Install and configure Remote Desktop Session Host, install and configure the Remote Desktop Web Access (RD Web Access) role, configure the Remote Desktop Connection Broker (RD Connection Broker) for the Remote Desktop Session Host, perform capacity analysis
Create and configure remote applications
Prepare Remote Desktop Session Hosts for application installation; configure RemoteApp properties; create a RemoteApp distribution file (MSI or RDP); sign packages with certificates; implement application version co-existence, by using RD Web Access; configure file extension associations
Deploy and manage remote applications
Configure RemoteApp and Desktop Connections settings, configure GPOs for signed packages, configure RemoteApp for Hyper-V, export and import RemoteApp configurations, deploy a RemoteApp distribution file (MSI or RDP)

Plan and implement business continuity for virtualized apps (27%)
Plan and implement a resilient Remote Desktop infrastructure
Design highly available RD Web Access, RD Connection Broker, and Remote Desktop Gateway; perform backup and recovery of the Remote Desktop Licensing server; configure VM or dedicated farm redirection
Plan and implement business continuity for virtual desktops
Design and implement Hyper-V Replica with Hyper-V Replica Broker, design and implement business continuity for personal and shared desktop collections
Plan and implement a resilient virtual app delivery infrastructure
Plan and implement highly available App-V data store and management server; implement pre-populated/shared cache App-V functionality for the VDI environment; implement highly available content share; implement a branch office strategy, using App-V; manage VM backups

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QUESTION 1
You need to meet the application requirements for Server1 and Server2.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A. Create a selection profile.
B. Create a deployment database.
C. Create a linked deployment share.
D. Modify the deployment share properties.
E. Create a new image group.

Correct  Click here to view the answers
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 2
Which software should you install on Server2 to support the planned changes?

A. SQL Server 2012 Express
B. WDS
C. Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK)
D. Microsoft .NET Framework 3.5

Correct  Click here to view the answers

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 3
You need to meet the application requirements for the client computers of the managers.
What should you do?

A. Create a customization file named Custom.msp. Copy Custom.msp to \\Server4 \Software\Updates. Run \\Server4\Software\Setup.exe without specifying any parameters.
B. Create a customization file named Custom.xml. Copy Custom.xml to \\Server4 \Software\Proplus.ww. Run \\Server4\Software\Setup.exe without specifying any parameters.
C. Create a customization file named Custom.xml. Copy Custom.xml to \\Server4 \Software\Updates. Run \\Server4\Software\Setup.exe without specifying any parameters.
D. Create a customization file named Answer.xml. Copy Answer.xml to the managers' computers. Run \\Server4\Software\Setup.exe and specify the /admin parameter.

Correct  Click here to view the answers

Explanation/Reference:

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